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timeandeternity
Guest
I’ve been doing my homework on the verses that speak about some not tasting death before seeing the kingdom of God come with power. So far the best explanation of these verses is that they refer to Pentecost. The following article outlines this argument fairly well:
christiancourier.com/articles/1392-jesus-foretells-the-coming-kingdom
However, it’s pretty clear that the early Christians were expecting Jesus’ imminent return. Even St. Paul seems to think that this was the case (see 1 Cor 7 and 1 Thess 4:16-17. In the latter, Paul uses “we” rather than “those,” which seems to suggest that he thought that he and others would be alive at the Second Coming). If this is what Paul believed, and it’s in the Bible, this is really making me doubt the infallibility of the Bible. I really need this doubt cleared up.
Also, right before the verses where Jesus talks about some not tasting death, he clearly talks about His second coming–for example, in Luke 9 He says “Whoever is ashamed of me and my words, the Son of Man will be ashamed of them when he comes in his glory and in the glory of the Father and of the holy angels.” Right after that He says “Some will not taste death etc.” The same thing occurs in Matthew 16:27-28 and Mark 8:38-9:1. To me this really seems like He’s talking about His second coming.
I just don’t know what to do. I’ve done everything I can to clear up this doubt. Please help me–I don’t want to lose my faith. I am sure there must be an explanation for both of my doubts (Bible infallibility, second coming), but I just can’t find one yet. Please help me out here!
christiancourier.com/articles/1392-jesus-foretells-the-coming-kingdom
However, it’s pretty clear that the early Christians were expecting Jesus’ imminent return. Even St. Paul seems to think that this was the case (see 1 Cor 7 and 1 Thess 4:16-17. In the latter, Paul uses “we” rather than “those,” which seems to suggest that he thought that he and others would be alive at the Second Coming). If this is what Paul believed, and it’s in the Bible, this is really making me doubt the infallibility of the Bible. I really need this doubt cleared up.
Also, right before the verses where Jesus talks about some not tasting death, he clearly talks about His second coming–for example, in Luke 9 He says “Whoever is ashamed of me and my words, the Son of Man will be ashamed of them when he comes in his glory and in the glory of the Father and of the holy angels.” Right after that He says “Some will not taste death etc.” The same thing occurs in Matthew 16:27-28 and Mark 8:38-9:1. To me this really seems like He’s talking about His second coming.
I just don’t know what to do. I’ve done everything I can to clear up this doubt. Please help me–I don’t want to lose my faith. I am sure there must be an explanation for both of my doubts (Bible infallibility, second coming), but I just can’t find one yet. Please help me out here!