O
ofthesons
Guest
1 of 2 - Sorry, i didn’t have time to edit out a bunch of stuff so…
Yes, the Church would still be because Scripture would still be -(in unwritten form as it was prior to when it was written; Rom 9:17, Gal 3:8!!!). I suppose whether it would have a different name can be discussed/debated, but I think that’d be a secondary issue.
You’re a making a claim, which states that Sola Scriptura is some altogether new concept , which Protestants came up with after the establishing (perhaps, the better word is ‘canonizing’) of other assumptions, affirmations, and doctrines that contradict it. You allude to the writings of the Church fathers (and perhaps there is also an allusion to theologians who have arisen after them) as if they couldn’t have possibly contradicted themselves or simply contradicted Scripture (Truth) on a fundamental level (Note, if you contradict Scripture, then you actually do contradict yourself anyway since you essentially say you believe Truth, which is what Scripture is per John 17:17, while at the same time believing or affirming what is untrue). And of course, it’s no wonder that this is what you would do since you are the one who holds that the Church is infallible.
But the bottom line, Scripture has always been the ultimate authority even when the Church had not been established and as I’ve said, even when Scripture was not yet written! Again, consider Rom 9:17: Scripture makes an affirmation to Pharaoh himself! When 1400 BC? Was he empirically reading Scripture? Again, consider Gal 3:8: Abraham was preached the Gospel! Neither Abraham nor Pharaoh had to consult with the Church. The Church didn’t have to include what was declared to them in the canon. It was canonical by its very nature. Scripture “simply is” (your wording) and there was no way anyone could objectively refute it.
cont…
Really? Let me see if I can explain what’s going on. I’m not a relativist who assumes one definition or another one that contradicts it, depending on who I’m discussing Sola Scriptura with nor am I equivocating. And in this particular instance, I certainly haven’t given you anything that the Reformed Sola Scripturist would be at odds with, unless of course he happen to be a novice. But I realize that I’m talking with an individual who holds to particular beliefs, and so all I seek to do is word my understanding of Sola Scriptura in such a way that I am actually engaging with you.Is this how you define Sola Scriptura? I have heard many different people define Sola Scriptura in many different ways. It seems to be at the whim of the one defining it, much like Scripture for many that hold to Sola Scriptura!
Now, this looks like exactly the kind of thing you need to be blasphemous. No, God simply is. Exo 3:14, John 8:58The Church simply is.
I’ll go ahead and trek with you on this…If we did not have Scriptures written down the Church would still BE!
Yes, the Church would still be because Scripture would still be -(in unwritten form as it was prior to when it was written; Rom 9:17, Gal 3:8!!!). I suppose whether it would have a different name can be discussed/debated, but I think that’d be a secondary issue.
No. I’m sorry, sir, but this line of reasoning is fallacious (unless, of course, I’m missing something). And then I hear from you that my doctrine of Sola Scriptura untenable!? This notion that the Church is infallible is just a fabrication. The Church has the power -authority, if you will- to state infallible things under the guidance of the Holy Spirit -something that is known on account of Scripture, which was already written at Carthage and Hippo and Trent anyway. What follows from this is not that the Church itself is infallible. You’re just making an unjustified philosophical leap.If Christ appointed **a Church **to preserve and communicate His revelation, that Church must be infallible, being that She was conferred by God Himself.
Just curious. When you say “made present”, you mean in the Eucharist?This is merely a possibility, but since I am not God and do not posses God’s middle knowledge. One could posit that, If there were no N.T scriptures today, Christ would still be proclaimed and made present through The Church since, that was the reality of the situation in 1st century Christianity
He chose Scripture, known by the Church prior to the writing of it, without which the Church couldn’t mediate anything. Scripture was known by Abraham and Pharaoh (again, Rom 9:17, Gal 3:8!) prior to when it was written.Christ has infallibly revealed Himself to man, the mode that He chose is a visible social order. Christ intentionally chose a visible social order, rather than a text to mediate His infallible authority to the world. Ergo the Social Order He conferred is an infallible one, and has infallibly written, compiled, and discerned Holy Writ, to be profitable for teaching, correction and reproof.
I know you believe all this. Now, what is it based on? What it comes down to is that it “simply is” and I’m just supposed to mindlessly, arbitrarily believe it?Yes, my objective reasoning for believing the Scriptures, is believing God has revealed Himself to men through the Person of Jesus Christ, and Christ established a Social order, one with a continuity tracing all the way back to Christ Himself.
No, I’m not talking about predestination.If you are trying to prove Sola Scriptura by Referencing a few passages of Scripture in regards to Predestination,OK, I posit the Church
You’re a making a claim, which states that Sola Scriptura is some altogether new concept , which Protestants came up with after the establishing (perhaps, the better word is ‘canonizing’) of other assumptions, affirmations, and doctrines that contradict it. You allude to the writings of the Church fathers (and perhaps there is also an allusion to theologians who have arisen after them) as if they couldn’t have possibly contradicted themselves or simply contradicted Scripture (Truth) on a fundamental level (Note, if you contradict Scripture, then you actually do contradict yourself anyway since you essentially say you believe Truth, which is what Scripture is per John 17:17, while at the same time believing or affirming what is untrue). And of course, it’s no wonder that this is what you would do since you are the one who holds that the Church is infallible.
But the bottom line, Scripture has always been the ultimate authority even when the Church had not been established and as I’ve said, even when Scripture was not yet written! Again, consider Rom 9:17: Scripture makes an affirmation to Pharaoh himself! When 1400 BC? Was he empirically reading Scripture? Again, consider Gal 3:8: Abraham was preached the Gospel! Neither Abraham nor Pharaoh had to consult with the Church. The Church didn’t have to include what was declared to them in the canon. It was canonical by its very nature. Scripture “simply is” (your wording) and there was no way anyone could objectively refute it.
cont…

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