Your logic here escapes me.
How so? My logic is completely valid. Unfortunately, yours is not.
The Bible says all have sinned, and obviously this means exactly what it says.
No, it does not. The “all” in Romans does not literally mean “all.” It means “many.” Why? Because as I’ve said before, there are notable exceptions to this “all.”
- Jesus Christ
- Mary~ God spared her from the effects of Original Sin because, as I have said before, Jesus inherited His human nature from His mother. Therefore, if Mary was a sinner, then so too was Jesus.
- Children below the age of reason/accountability~ The Bible defines sin as a “transgression of the Law,” correct? Well, if that’s the case, then young children cannot sin. In order to transgress the Law, one must be able to distinguish the difference between good and evil. Young children cannot do this, and therefore they cannot sin. If you say otherwise, then please provide some credible, logical evidence as to what sins young children commit.
- People who have had their mental functions stripped away due to mental illness~ same as with the children below the age of reason. If someone no longer has control of his or her thoughts, he or she cannot possibly distinguish between good and evil. Hence, such people cannot sin. Again, if you say otherwise, then please provide evidence as to what sins these people can commit.
However, let’s say you’re right for a moment. If the “all” in Romans literally means “
ALL,” then you
MUST conclude that Jesus Himself was a sinner. You’re interpreting the “all” as indicating an absolute statement. An absolute statement means there are no exceptions. Period. Therefore, if there are no exceptions to this “all have sinned” verse, then you cannot exclude our Lord and Savior. Allow me to demonstrate this with some syllogism:
A. All humans are sinners.
B. Jesus was human.
C. Therefore, Jesus was a sinner.
You can’t escape this logic. Your interpretation of the “all” in Romans is veritably false.
Except that they were sinless when they were first created, which is the point I’m trying to make.
Anyone who sins and repents in sincerity before God is pardoned and could be blameless from that point on, but they have sinned.
Two problems with this:
- God does not forget our sins. He may forgive us for offending Him, but He still holds us to those sins. We’re still accountable for all sins we commit, and are therefore never “blameless.”
- Let’s look at the actual verse in question, with respect to Elizabeth and her husband:
And they were both just before God, walking in all the commandments and justifications of the Lord without blame. (Luke 1:6)
Since the Bible defines sin as a “transgression of the Law,” then how is it possible for Elizabeth and her husband to have sinned? This verse explicitly states that they were “just before God,” and followed all of His Law without blame. If they followed His Law completely, without blame being held towards them, then how is it possible that they have transgressed the Law?
With all due respect Phoenix , this scriptures give no support for such a claim.
Pray tell, why does Genesis 3:15 not point to Mary’s Immaculate Conception? I didn’t just this the verse, you know. I included a detailed, well-reasoned, and logical explanation as to why this verse points to Mary being without sin. You didn’t refute anything from my explanation. Therefore, you have dodged my argument. Unless you respond to my explanation concerning Genesis 3:15, I will be forced to conclude that you cannot answer my argument.
First of all, the correct translation of Gen 3:15 from the Hebrew text does not say “she shall crush thy head” ,but rather Gen. 3:15 says" And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel."
First of all, many biblical scholars I have read admit that the original Hebrew word in Genesis 3:15 is rather ambiguous, and can be translated as “he,” “she,” or “it.” According to English grammar, then “it” is the most appropriate pronoun. However, the actual Hebrew word used in that verse does not exclusively mean “it.”
Second of all, this does not answer my argument concerning Genesis 3:15 in any way, shape, or form. The important part of the verse is “I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed.” The “he/she/it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his/her/its heel” has no effect whatsoever on my argument.
“I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed” can only refer to Jesus and Mary. Since both are at enmity with the Devil, they both must be without sin.
The English Douay–Rheims Bible 1609 onwards has “she (Mary) shall crush thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for her heel.” The reading was supported in the Bull Ineffabilis Deus of December 1854, and is defended in the Catholic Encyclopedia (1912), where Anthony Maas (noted catholic exegete) acknowledges that the Douay–Rheims does not follow the Hebrew" Wilkopedia
This is not pertinent to the discussion at hand.
continued in my next post…