J
jeckert79
Guest
This is a question that I have for Protestants/Reformists. Before I send this one out to my friends I wanted to know if this question is being asked correctly…what do you think, here it is:
"History shows that the some of the earliest writings that include the Catholic Church recorded on them was from as early as 107AD (i.e. one in 107AD was by bishop, St. Ignatius of Antioch). The purpose of the Church finally giving itself a name to the followers of Christ was to distinguish the difference between the “true teachings” and ones that embodied heresies. This was prior to when the Bible was written and this leads me to my Q:
The Catholic Church believes that "Ecumenical Councils” are to be guided by the Holy Spirit; thus, making doctrines on “faith and morals” the Church claims it to be “infallible.” These councils gave you and I the term doctrine/teaching of the things like the “trinity” (in 200AD, even though it was not formally defined ‘til around 325 AD at Council of Nicea), the Cannon of the Bible, etc… These many councils (that exist even today) have provided the Catholic Church + Papal infallibility = all of the Church’s Sacred Magisterium (what Catholics regard as infallible Church teachings that have been recorded over 2000 years and have never been changed) those who possess the Bible accepted this on the account of the Bible being “God’s Word” (God revealed revelation to them the books of the Bible; rather than other gospels, like the Gospel of Thomas). My questions are:
1.) When did you or any reformists decide that these Councils were no longer guided by the Holy Spirit or no longer infallible (please keep scandal out of this: indulgences for $, bad popes, etc…)?
2.) Also, how could one come around to accepting the Bible without accepting the Councils in which God entrusted with the Bible?"
…thanks in advance!
Joe
"History shows that the some of the earliest writings that include the Catholic Church recorded on them was from as early as 107AD (i.e. one in 107AD was by bishop, St. Ignatius of Antioch). The purpose of the Church finally giving itself a name to the followers of Christ was to distinguish the difference between the “true teachings” and ones that embodied heresies. This was prior to when the Bible was written and this leads me to my Q:
The Catholic Church believes that "Ecumenical Councils” are to be guided by the Holy Spirit; thus, making doctrines on “faith and morals” the Church claims it to be “infallible.” These councils gave you and I the term doctrine/teaching of the things like the “trinity” (in 200AD, even though it was not formally defined ‘til around 325 AD at Council of Nicea), the Cannon of the Bible, etc… These many councils (that exist even today) have provided the Catholic Church + Papal infallibility = all of the Church’s Sacred Magisterium (what Catholics regard as infallible Church teachings that have been recorded over 2000 years and have never been changed) those who possess the Bible accepted this on the account of the Bible being “God’s Word” (God revealed revelation to them the books of the Bible; rather than other gospels, like the Gospel of Thomas). My questions are:
1.) When did you or any reformists decide that these Councils were no longer guided by the Holy Spirit or no longer infallible (please keep scandal out of this: indulgences for $, bad popes, etc…)?
2.) Also, how could one come around to accepting the Bible without accepting the Councils in which God entrusted with the Bible?"
…thanks in advance!
Joe