T
ThinkingSapien
Guest
What does that mean given that neither religion nor a religious institution are needed for some one to become married?Marriage IS a religious institution, not a political one.
What does that mean given that neither religion nor a religious institution are needed for some one to become married?Marriage IS a religious institution, not a political one.
I agree with you.Personally I can support “some” of gay rights…
I don’t think I could bring myself to support gay marriage but I can definitely get behind anti-bullying laws, discrimination protections, and hate crimes laws…
Let me explain… Just because someone says their “gay” doesn’t necessarily mean that they’re sexually active or in a relationship…
I don’t think someone has the right to fire someone just on the basis of them being gay. I mean if you no nothing about their private life then that’s just downright wrong to fire them. You don’t know whether they’re celibate, sexually active. or w/e… That’s discrimination…
I don’t think Johnny the good little altar boy has a right to go up to his school’s resident homosexual and tell him he’s an abomination and is damned to hell… Telling anyone that is bullying in my book…
That’s way different than just saying homosexuality is a sin…
I’ll probably get flak for this but this is a social justice thing…![]()
I agree with you.
Just because a person supports “gay rights” in a political context, does not necessarily mean they support homosexual activity as a moral right. There is a subtle but real difference. I don’t believe that its a moral right to have sex before marriage; but I certainly don’t believe that it should be made illegal, and you certainly won’t see me protesting for the criminalisation of those who have premarital sex!!! In a similar vein, neither will you see me protesting against gay marriage.
I do feel that gay marriage is the logical consequence of a secular system that is free of divine command. However, I do reject homosexual activity on moral/teleological grounds. In reality a gay marriage is automatically not a real marriage in the Catholic sense of the word despite being sponsored by the state (according to the Catholic definition, there may very well be a civil union in process, but a “marriage” is not actually taking place in the true sense of the word; only in appearance). But it is not evident to me that I can reject civil unions between members of the same sex on legal grounds. Legally, it seems arbitrary and unjustified pragmatically speaking.
In the Catholic Church Marriage has always been a Sacrament.That sounds like a good idea, but…
Are you saying that it’s the word “marriage” that is most upsetting for Christians when it comes to gay marriage? That Catholics would not have a problem with gay people having a civil union?
Actually, the several dictionary definition of “marriage” I looked at doesn’t mention God, but only law. Here’s the main M-Webster one:
a (1) : the state of being united to a person of the opposite sex as husband or wife i*n a consensual and contractual relationship recognized by law *(2) : the state of being united to a person of the same sex in a relationship like that of a traditional marriage
And neither does the encyclopedia:
“…a social union or legal contract between people that creates kinship. It is an institution in which interpersonal relationships, usually intimate and sexual, are acknowledged in a variety of ways, depending on the culture or subculture in which it is found. Such a union, often formalized via a wedding ceremony, may also be called matrimony.”
So it looks like the definition of marriage already is defined as such?
We have to be realistic. Jesus knew slavery was wrong but he also knew it was a waste of time trying to transform the political and social system overnight. He also knew He wouldn’t have time to fulfil His mission if He gave His enemies an opportunity to report Him to the Roman authorities for preaching sedition and revolution. They eventually did so anyway but at least He had three years in which to establish a community and attract followers, mainly in Galilee and to a lesser extent in Samaria. It was when he went to Judea that He was finally arrested outside Jerusalem and executed on a false pretext .I agree with you.
Just because a person supports “gay rights” in a political context, does not necessarily mean they support homosexual activity as a moral right. There is a subtle but real difference. I don’t believe that its a moral right to have sex before marriage; but I certainly don’t believe that it should be made illegal, and you certainly won’t see me protesting for the criminalisation of those who have premarital sex!!! In a similar vein, neither will you see me protesting against gay marriage.
I do feel that gay marriage is the logical consequence of a secular system that is free of divine command. However, I do reject homosexual activity on moral/teleological grounds. In reality a gay marriage is automatically not a real marriage in the Catholic sense of the word despite being sponsored by the state (according to the Catholic definition, there may very well be a civil union in process, but a “marriage” is not actually taking place in the true sense of the word; only in appearance). But it is not evident to me that I can reject civil unions between members of the same sex on legal grounds. Legally, it seems arbitrary and unjustified pragmatically speaking.
Its irrelevant. People assume a lot of things. This is not a matter of what people traditionally believed. If people traditionally assumed that its okay to sacrifice every third child, this to me would not be sufficient enough reason to enact this in law. In any case, the State cannot rationally assume as true the moral/religious beliefs of Christianity if there is truly a split between state and religion; and neither can they assume as true the beliefs of any other religion or people. Moral truth and what it means for something to be morally true is also a belief; and people have different ideas about what that word means. You have given no good pragmatic reason to put your beliefs over somebody else’s. Neither can the state truly function on an “assumption” outside of pragmatic considerations since that would be arbitrary and therefore unjustified. This has certain consequences; it cannot hold one belief over another; accept in context of pragmatism (what best suites society as a “whole” on pragmatic grounds). In so far as that’s true, you have to show why the government should reject homosexual marriage and its distinction on pragmatic grounds. Any attempt to bring assumptions or moral beliefs in to the fray that do not have a pragmatic basis, will fall flat unless the state itself breaks its own rules.Mind
**It first has to be evident that such demands are depraved and ridiculous. **
No it doesn’t. This has always been assumed to be true by every civilization. It is the requirement of the pragmatist to prove that sodomy is not depraved and ridiculous.![]()
If a ruling state could know without possibility of error or division, that teleology is a real self evident aspect of reality and can also show how “objective moral truth” follows rationally and necessarily from that fact; then such a state would be correct in producing laws based on that knowledge.For if the natural law were something one could use to decide political matters, and gay marriage was found to be contrary to the natural law, why would it follow that a prohibition of gay marriage is beyond the power of the state?
I think that doesn’t conflict with what is being discussed, as granting homosexuals the secular status of married doesn’t obligate religious institution to acknowledge one as married under the church.What secular society does is its own business but redefining terms that have and always had a particular meaning does not change the way the Church will view things.
This statement assumes that an objective moral standard must have a divine inspiration.This is an argument i have made supporting the legality of gay rights.
- A state that is not compelled by divine law, can only make judgments based upon pragmatic and utilitarian values.
An objective moral standard must have evidence of being real; having a real foundation in reality. Otherwise it has the same epistemological value as religion. Its a faith based belief; much of the time being an expression of some kind of religion or faith. In so far as the law must determine what is true, it follows that faith, belief, tradition, and culture, are not sufficient standards of truth in so far why a law should be made. Why should the law place one belief or the assumption of objective morality over another in terms of governance? How does the government know of the existence of objective morality? There is no rational basis for this. There is only one way to proceed rationally without prejudice, or the least of it, and that is pragmatism. Thus pragmatism is the only basis on which laws can be formed in a pluralistic society; thus laws are practical laws, not laws produced according to somebody faith, religion, culture, or tradition.This statement assumes that an objective moral standard must have a divine inspiration.
Unless that can be demonstrated, it is a mere assertion and affords no proof.
No argument.An objective moral standard must have evidence of being real; having a real foundation in reality. Otherwise it has the same epistemological value as religion. Its a belief; much of the time being an expression of some kind of religion or faith. In so far as the law must determine what is true, it follows that faith, belief, and culture, are not sufficient standards of truth. Why should the law place one belief over another in terms of governance?
Let’s rephrase the statement as a question and explore a little, without accepting the inherent assumption in the -
- A state that is not compelled by divine law, can only make judgments based upon pragmatic and utilitarian values.
I am fully aware that you don’t have an argument. But thanks for pointing that out.No argument.
As soon as you prove that objective moral law exists and follows necessarily from some fact we experience in reality, get back to me.Can a state that does not consider itself as being compelled by divine law find an objective standard of right, wrong and value which would be compelling?
I meant no argument with what you wrote. However, if all you wish to do is score cheap shots, then by all means go for it. It makes you look rather silly though.I am fully aware that you don’t have an argument. But thanks for pointing that out.
If you think by sidestepping the original point I made, which is that your premise contained an assumption, somehow makes you look smart, it doesn’t. It makes you look obtuse and it makes it obvious for all to see you can’t address the glaring problem with your original argument…As soon as you prove that objective moral law exists and follows necessarily from some fact we experience in reality, get back to me.![]()
I didn’t state any belief. Your original statement assumed one. I posed a question, in good faith. It appears you don’t handle being challenged very well.Until then, that’s just something you have faith in. You believe in it, but your belief in it is not by itself a compelling argument.
I posed a question. You attempting to turn that question into an argument is unbecoming and makes obvious your temperamental shortcomings. You have made yourself look rather foolish, because the original assumption in your first statement still stands.Its not evident that you can produce such an argument. So why should that state accept you assertion or assumption as a foundation to law. If you want the state or a people to believe that, then you must prove your case. The onus is on you.
What ever makes me laugh, I do. You are my play thing until I get bored.I meant no argument with what you wrote. However, if all you wish to do is score cheap shots, then by all means go for it. It makes you look rather silly though.