Polygamy "allowed" in the Bible?

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tilly1

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there are many sites out there that say polygamy was never preached against/mentioned in the Bible. Is that true? And if so why?

Thanks!
 
Obviously, you’re not read the Bible very well.

While there are examples of polygamy in the Old Testament (not the New), it is never portrayed as a cause of domestic concord.
 
God does allow polygamy in the Old Testament but it seems that a man would have one main wife and other “concubines” or minor wives. It doesn’t appear all that noteworthy to me. God orders people to kill as well, among other things. It was all just part of the plan - even if our mortal minds can’t understand its place.

At least that’s the way I’ve always looked at it (and seems to be what the comments of Challoner point toward); correct me if I’m wrong!
 
The basic medieval understanding was that the Patriarchs’ polygamy did not violate the natural law (and thus they did nothing wrong thereby), but the arguments supporting that conclusion varied. For some, the natural law itself did not forbid polygamy, while for others the case relied on God’s specific command to take another woman (thus altering the objective nature of the act).
 
It is achievable, if one wished and with enough effort, to classify a significant amount of what appear to be morally questionable acts/ways of living ( which are recounted in the Bible; esp. OT ), as "not being preached against". That would simply depend upon one’s criteria for classification.

One disadvantage of looking at sacred scripture in this way is that if it becomes form of habit, we can end up straining out all the contradictions into one bowl ( which can make for a pretty rough diet to swallow for those of us intent on being believers).

General straight out polygamy, although common in exterior identifying elements, *is usually distinguished from *Old Testament concubinage.

I found these links helpful in explaining the difference to me :

newadvent.org/cathen/09693a.htm under ***Polyandry and Polygamy ***(polygyny)

newadvent.org/cathen/02548a.htm under Marriage and the Constitution of the Family; paragraph 5

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pilegesh

In my own limited opinion, I would say that our Blessed Lord tied together questions of monogamy, divorce and celibacy in Chapter 19 of the Gospel according to St. Matthew:

Matt 19: 3-12 [NAB]

3
Some Pharisees approached him, and tested him, 4 saying, “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any cause whatever?”
4
5 He said in reply, “Have you not read that from the beginning the Creator ‘made them male and female’
5
and said, ‘For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’?
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So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore, what God has joined together, no human being must separate.”
7
6 They said to him, “Then why did Moses command that the man give the woman a bill of divorce and dismiss (her)?”
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He said to them, “Because of the hardness of your hearts Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so.
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I say to you, 7 whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful) and marries another commits adultery.”
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[His] disciples said to him, “If that is the case of a man with his wife, it is better not to marry.”
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He answered, “Not all can accept [this] word, 8 but only those to whom that is granted.
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Some are incapable of marriage because they were born so; some, because they were made so by others; some, because they have renounced marriage 9 for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. Whoever can accept this ought to accept it.”

…hope this helps and hasn’t confused you tilly1.

God bless you. 🙂
 
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