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goout
Guest
You have no case whatsoever, and in the courtroom analogy, your case would probably be thrown out and dismissed rather quickly.My view is that polygamy is not a sin. The Catholic view, which you’ve just explained, is not a logically consistent view which is why I’m unconvinced, and I’ll explain precisely why.
Logical inconsistences:
I’ve raised these points on two different forums and I’ve yet to receive a logically consistent explanation as to why polygamy was allowed. The simple answer is that adultery was defined to allow polygyny, and therefore polygyny was not prohibited. If I argued my case before a court of law, I’d probably win just by exposing the logical flaws in your monogamy-only position, and that’s not even counting all of the POSITIVE evidence that I have in support of my view.
- Lots of Catholics claim that polygamy was allowed because of hard-heartedness, but then you have other Catholics that say it was allowed repopulate the Earth. Which is it? You can’t have it both ways.
- Regarding the point about population…Incest was also used to populate the Earth (per the Bible), yet it was strictly prohibited by the time of the Law was given. So it seems that increasing the population was no longer a goal so why was polygamy allowed to continue even after giving of the Law (the same law that banned incest)?!
- Regarding the point about hard-heartedness…If polygamy was wrong then it would be adultery. We know that God never made a concession for adultery since people were charged with it before (Genesis) and after (Moses and later times) the Law was given. Therefore, the reason for a “concession”, hard-heartedness, is an invalid point because there was no concession to begin with. So then why was polygamy allowed? I’ll answer below!
The issue is you assume that whatever happened in the OT is binding morally.
This is no different from walking into an American courtroom and invoking 17th century British laws.
No different.
You are doing confirmation bias with the bible.