Pope allows condom use?

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I heard recently that the Pope has allowed the use of condoms to prevent the spread of HIV/AIDS.

A few articles on the net seem to confirm this, and others say indefinite statements.

Is this true?

Are there any official statements on this matter?
No on both counts.
 
All that being said then, what would be wrong in requiring intermittent abstinence around ovulation (as with NFP and medical use of the pill) while allowing condom use outside this period for a married couple affected by HIV?
How will this protect the innocent spouse from infection? HIV is present in the secretions of the genital area, mucous membranes, the anal area, eyes, blood and mouth. This still doesn’t make sense from a medical standpoint.

What does abstaining from sexual intercourse during the ovulatory period and using a condom the rest of the time…for what?:confused:
 
Female condoms do exist for some of these very concerns and despite the presence of HIV in bodily fluids, kissing has not been put forward as a mode of spread to my knowledge.

A couple who are very good friends of mine cared for family members with complications of AIDS, were repeatedly exposed to every imaginable bodily fluid and to this day both remain free of the disease. I believe that scenario is being repeated a thousandfold in Africa everyday yet have not heard it stated that non-sexual contacts who care for patients are contracting the disease through such exposure.

Just mere presence of the virus is not sufficient for spread, it requires a break in the skin or mucous membranes, usually as a result of minor trauma such as may occur normally during marital relations.

To me, if there is a spiritual reason why the scenario I envisage is wrong then I’d be happy to learn it, but from a scientific point of view, even if AIDS could be spread by kissing that would not mean condom use (in the manner described) would not still substantially reduce the risk. Using a seatbelt will not prevent all types of crash injuries ( I could still die from the car exploding), but significantly reduces fatalities all the same.
 
Just a clarification: the point of abstaining around ovulation time is so that the condom use would not be contraceptive in nature but purely aimed at minimizing both risk of infection and marital strain.
 
ilovekittens;3327856:
There is no argument for use of condoms and as a Catholic you should be well aware of the Church’s teaching on this. It is considered “intrinsically evil” and all Catholics must accept this
.

**Most Catholics do not accept this. And that’s a fact. Check out the low birth rate in Italy - the Pope’s back yard. Catholics don’t accept it there either. **

There are quite a few legitimate arguments for use of condoms. They are partly the reason why you don’t hear the topic of birth control on Sundays or any other time.
 
**Most Catholics do not accept this. And that’s a fact. Check out the low birth rate in Italy - the Pope’s back yard. Catholics don’t accept it there either. **

There are quite a few legitimate arguments for use of condoms. They are partly the reason why you don’t hear the topic of birth control on Sundays or any other time.
Since most don’t… does this mean then that it is right not to follow the Church’s stance? Very few Catholics probably follow all the rules set by the Church but I don’t think that makes those rules any less important. If the Church makes a rule it should be followed, even if Tom, Dicck, and Harry are not following it.

SD
 
thistle;3328530:
**Most Catholics do not accept this. And that’s a fact. Check out the low birth rate in Italy - the Pope’s back yard. Catholics don’t accept it there either. **

There are quite a few legitimate arguments for use of condoms. They are partly the reason why you don’t hear the topic of birth control on Sundays or any other time.

I would like to hear some of these legitimate reasons as well.
 
mikew262;3336869:
Of course it is. It has been taught since the beginning of the church . That makes in an infallible magesterial teaching. No contraception. End of story.

Not stated by Thistle but by Mikew262.
No, I think you are incorrect as far as it being an infallble teaching.
 
Seatuck;3336947:
No, I think you are incorrect as far as it being an infallble teaching.
No, I’m not incorrect. You should prove that you are. When the church teaches something always and everywhere it is infallible. This is the case with contraception.

catholic.com/library/Birth_Control.asp

Vademecum For Confessors-
The Church has always taught the intrinsic evil of contraception, that is, of every marital act intentionally rendered unfruitful. This teaching is to be held as definitive and irreformable. Contraception is gravely opposed to marital chastity; it is contrary to the good of the transmission of life (the procreative aspect of matrimony), and to the reciprocal self-giving of the spouses (the unitive aspect of matrimony); it harms true love and denies the sovereign role of God in the transmission of human life.33
 
This conversation isn’t about contraception, it’s about condoms, which can be used for other reasons than their contraceptive effect.

Why can’t we stay on topic? I really would like to understand why condom use is intrinsically evil if it’s contraceptive effect is null and void (such as 10 days after ovulation when no egg is present to be fertilized, such as in hysterectomized women, such as in women who have had their ovaries removed).

I know of very few objects in this life that are evil in themselves; it’s usually about how they are used and what the intent is.

If we are to live by principles, it’s only reasonable to expect that we fully understand what they are and why they exist.
 
If using a condom can help prevent the spread the AIDS and STDs? You bet!
We know that intentionally sterilizing the act is always wrong.
We cannot do wrong even to obtain a good end. It really is not that hard to see,
 
This conversation isn’t about contraception, it’s about condoms, which can be used for other reasons than their contraceptive effect.

Why can’t we stay on topic? I really would like to understand why condom use is intrinsically evil if it’s contraceptive effect is null and void (such as 10 days after ovulation when no egg is present to be fertilized, such as in hysterectomized women, such as in women who have had their ovaries removed).

I know of very few objects in this life that are evil in themselves; it’s usually about how they are used and what the intent is.

If we are to live by principles, it’s only reasonable to expect that we fully understand what they are and why they exist.
Every marital act must be oriented toward life. That means even when one is not ovulating or done ovulating.
 
This conversation isn’t about contraception, it’s about condoms, which can be used for other reasons than their contraceptive effect.

Why can’t we stay on topic? I really would like to understand why condom use is intrinsically evil if it’s contraceptive effect is null and void (such as 10 days after ovulation when no egg is present to be fertilized, such as in hysterectomized women, such as in women who have had their ovaries removed).

I know of very few objects in this life that are evil in themselves; it’s usually about how they are used and what the intent is.

If we are to live by principles, it’s only reasonable to expect that we fully understand what they are and why they exist.
You are correct. Condoms can be used in a moral way. For example, a solider in a just war could use it to keep water out of their rifles. A jogger could morally wear one to keep from chafing.

But the use of them in the marital act is immoral. The act may not be blocked from life by articficial means.

In the case of the hysterectomy, the principle of ‘double effect’ applies. That the intent of saving the life of the woman may be justified by even if it includes the removal of her reproductive faculties.

But ‘double efffect’ only applies if there are no other means that do not have the undesired effect. If there was a way of curing the woman WITHOUT removing her uterus, and a hyterectomy was chosen away, that would be immoral.

There does exist a means of preventing the trasmission of STD’s without the use of condoms. That is called abstinece. Because there exists another means without the evil effect, it must be used.
 
Female condoms do exist for some of these very concerns and despite the presence of HIV in bodily fluids, kissing has not been put forward as a mode of spread to my knowledge.

A couple who are very good friends of mine cared for family members with complications of AIDS, were repeatedly exposed to every imaginable bodily fluid and to this day both remain free of the disease. I believe that scenario is being repeated a thousandfold in Africa everyday yet have not heard it stated that non-sexual contacts who care for patients are contracting the disease through such exposure.

Just mere presence of the virus is not sufficient for spread, it requires a break in the skin or mucous membranes, usually as a result of minor trauma such as may occur normally during marital relations.

To me, if there is a spiritual reason why the scenario I envisage is wrong then I’d be happy to learn it, but from a scientific point of view, even if AIDS could be spread by kissing that would not mean condom use (in the manner described) would not still substantially reduce the risk. Using a seatbelt will not prevent all types of crash injuries ( I could still die from the car exploding), but significantly reduces fatalities all the same.
To each his own.

If I was infected with HIV, I would never trust one thin piece of latex to protect him from the devastating disease, nor do I see it as protecting him from the various other bodily secretions that can transmit the disease.

Per the CDC, these are normal and possible methods of transmission, and not all methods of transmission require a cut in the skin. Furthermore, the center for disease control is generally considered an authoritative source on these situations. Although in this thread it has been repeatedly dismissed, it is still a formidable cite.

Still, I understand that sexual intercourse is by many considered an unalienable right that is to be obtained no matter what the risks or consequences.

In your case, do you believe your position is due to a faith in condoms, or an atittude that HIV and AIDs are manageable diseases?

I see that you have moved from the 3rd world plight to consentual married sex and back to the 3rd world plight. Should we just go ahead and debate both, or should we focus on the 3rd world plight again?

You allude to a medical profession. Going back to my original argument that condoms represent a poor resolution and completely miss the actual problem, what are your thoughts on their water sanitation?

Have you considered that in the principalities, countries or areas where they actually have running water, they use chlorine whereas we use chloride? As one person interested in science to another, do you have a comment on the cellular damage and altered composition that might make these people more susceptible to AIDs? And if these studies conclude that the difference in chemical cleaning is a strong factor in HIV infection, would you still clamor to give them condoms?

I guess condoms are much cheaper and easier for us to give, then to go through all the hard work of making sure they have running water that gets cleaned.
 
This conversation isn’t about contraception, it’s about condoms, which can be used for other reasons than their contraceptive effect.

Why can’t we stay on topic? I really would like to understand why condom use is intrinsically evil if it’s contraceptive effect is null and void (such as 10 days after ovulation when no egg is present to be fertilized, such as in hysterectomized women, such as in women who have had their ovaries removed).

I know of very few objects in this life that are evil in themselves; it’s usually about how they are used and what the intent is.

If we are to live by principles, it’s only reasonable to expect that we fully understand what they are and why they exist.
No, you are wrong. One of the problems with the use of condoms is it has an affect on the unitive aspect of the marital act. That is an important reason why condoms are not allowed. This part of why it is evil not just because of the effect on the procreative aspect of the marital act. Condoms negate the one flesh union because they are in between the husband and wife.
 
I am curious, if you are married to someone with AIDS, do you just become chaste?
 
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