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Someone I know brought this issue to my attention a couple weeks ago & I haven’t gotten around to asking until now… I have read many comments and articles (most from uber-liberals) on the Holy Father’s choice to break with tradition & wash the feet of criminals, Muslims, (Orthodox) & (2) women. . .
most digress into ridiculous arguments about the (supposed) possibility of female priests, others say it was all symbolic so it doesn’t matter, and some say- he’s the Pope, he can do whatever the heck he wants!
It’s my understanding that this is not true- There is technically a distinction between papal authority, Solemn & Ordinary Infallibility (?) [This is why Pope Alexander VI’s personal actions (you might know him as the Borgia Pope) are to be considered separate from his Papal actions- yes, even he was infallible!] I’m not saying Pope Francis’ washing of the feet is the same as Pope Alexander’s controversies but… it’s important to remember that there is in fact a difference between doctrine & dogma and that the Pope (no matter who it is) will not be capable of changing the Church (unless it is God’s will) [though as we’ve all seen with Vatican II, priests & bishops can cause serious harm & abuses to the liturgy… though this doesn’t invalidate VII, just their false interpretations of it]…
Perhaps I am digressing now… I wanted to point out this for consideration…
The Congregation for Divine Worship’s PASCHALIS SOLLEMNITATIS includes the following-
"51. The washing of the feet of chosen men which, according to tradition, is performed on this day, represents the service and charity of Christ, who came “not to be served, but to serve.[58] This tradition should be maintained, and its proper significance explained.”
I am reminded of the Fulton Sheen’s “A priest is not his own” … surely the same must be said for the pope as well (right?) A pope is not at liberty to change a doctrine or abandon a liturgical rubric because he fancies to do so (it must be divinely inspired and officially altered before he can publicly go against it -right?) … I have read all the protestant/progressive claims in defense of this and I’m not trying to attack Pope Francis … I’m just wondering…
What’s up with this? Is Ecumenism an adequate do-what-you-want excuse or does anyone else’s intuition tell them this is funky? If there is something theologically lacking, or significant reason to do so, surely the rubric should be changed officially before unofficially enacted - right? Otherwise isn’t this simply a liturgical abuse (no matter who it comes from)?]
Please note: I’m not asking about the obscure justifications used by the “progressive” protestants which are self proclaimed Catholics (I’m referring here to the liberals that see this as a welcomed move towards the heretical ideal of “female priests”)… I would like to know - does the pope have the authority to change any liturgical rite (in this case the Mandatum) without *first * doing so in an official capacity?
*If you still don’t understand what I’m asking - consider this … Prior to Vatican II, if a priest, bishop (or even a pope) decided to celebrate Mass in a vernacular language, (regardless of whether the ruling would be eventually changed or not) was that not justifiably considered heretical? …
I suppose I’ve long been skeptical of priests doing things for “in the spirit of” their beliefs rather than in conjunction with the Church… I think even Martin Luther used this claim… I’m not saying Pope Francis is a modern equivalent to that Protestant heretic but I don’t see it (alone) as a sufficient claim for the justification of ‘willy-nilly’ change. (Wow- I realize what a bitter cynic I must sound like … to anybody that does not know my undying loyalty to the Church…) I’m not saying the Holy Father’s actions were wrong (necessarily) - I’m just wondering if anybody can explain this more clearly? (without relying on the weak excuses aforementioned) Please - help me understand.
most digress into ridiculous arguments about the (supposed) possibility of female priests, others say it was all symbolic so it doesn’t matter, and some say- he’s the Pope, he can do whatever the heck he wants!
It’s my understanding that this is not true- There is technically a distinction between papal authority, Solemn & Ordinary Infallibility (?) [This is why Pope Alexander VI’s personal actions (you might know him as the Borgia Pope) are to be considered separate from his Papal actions- yes, even he was infallible!] I’m not saying Pope Francis’ washing of the feet is the same as Pope Alexander’s controversies but… it’s important to remember that there is in fact a difference between doctrine & dogma and that the Pope (no matter who it is) will not be capable of changing the Church (unless it is God’s will) [though as we’ve all seen with Vatican II, priests & bishops can cause serious harm & abuses to the liturgy… though this doesn’t invalidate VII, just their false interpretations of it]…
Perhaps I am digressing now… I wanted to point out this for consideration…
The Congregation for Divine Worship’s PASCHALIS SOLLEMNITATIS includes the following-
"51. The washing of the feet of chosen men which, according to tradition, is performed on this day, represents the service and charity of Christ, who came “not to be served, but to serve.[58] This tradition should be maintained, and its proper significance explained.”
I am reminded of the Fulton Sheen’s “A priest is not his own” … surely the same must be said for the pope as well (right?) A pope is not at liberty to change a doctrine or abandon a liturgical rubric because he fancies to do so (it must be divinely inspired and officially altered before he can publicly go against it -right?) … I have read all the protestant/progressive claims in defense of this and I’m not trying to attack Pope Francis … I’m just wondering…
What’s up with this? Is Ecumenism an adequate do-what-you-want excuse or does anyone else’s intuition tell them this is funky? If there is something theologically lacking, or significant reason to do so, surely the rubric should be changed officially before unofficially enacted - right? Otherwise isn’t this simply a liturgical abuse (no matter who it comes from)?]
Please note: I’m not asking about the obscure justifications used by the “progressive” protestants which are self proclaimed Catholics (I’m referring here to the liberals that see this as a welcomed move towards the heretical ideal of “female priests”)… I would like to know - does the pope have the authority to change any liturgical rite (in this case the Mandatum) without *first * doing so in an official capacity?
*If you still don’t understand what I’m asking - consider this … Prior to Vatican II, if a priest, bishop (or even a pope) decided to celebrate Mass in a vernacular language, (regardless of whether the ruling would be eventually changed or not) was that not justifiably considered heretical? …
I suppose I’ve long been skeptical of priests doing things for “in the spirit of” their beliefs rather than in conjunction with the Church… I think even Martin Luther used this claim… I’m not saying Pope Francis is a modern equivalent to that Protestant heretic but I don’t see it (alone) as a sufficient claim for the justification of ‘willy-nilly’ change. (Wow- I realize what a bitter cynic I must sound like … to anybody that does not know my undying loyalty to the Church…) I’m not saying the Holy Father’s actions were wrong (necessarily) - I’m just wondering if anybody can explain this more clearly? (without relying on the weak excuses aforementioned) Please - help me understand.