M
mpartyka
Guest
And that’s a teaching that doesn’t appear in any of the 4th or 5th century Fathers. Indeed, the Fathers explicitly refer to two modes of conception: Christ’s, and everyone else’s; i.e., supernatural, and natural.How do you know this? The Church teaching on the IC implies that the natural order was interrupted by the supernatural in applying the merits of Christ sacrifice at the time of conception.
Now, I realize that the teachings of these early Fathers doesn’t preclude the Church of later years from prounouncing the Immaculate Conception a “divinely revealed dogma”, but what should be realized is that this dogma was not revealed to the Apostles or their successors until much, much later in the Church’s history. Whether this fact carries any weight to it as regards the dogma’s veracity is a matter of opinion.
Well, according to the Fathers I quoted, you’re wrong. But again, that only matters if you insist that the dogma of the Immaculate Conception has been the constant teaching of the Church, and I’ve already said that the Church’s ability to pronounce a dogma “divinely revealed” doesn’t depend on that dogma’s having been the constant teaching of the Church. Like I said in a prior post, the Church could declare next week that not only Mary but also *Joseph *was bodily assumed into heaven at the point of death, and make this belief incumbent upon the faithful, and who could argue?My understanding of the Church’s teaching indicatates that this is an incorrect view of how original sin is transmitted. This defect exists in both male and female, not just the “male seed”. I also believe that is an error to declare that sexual intercourse always involve lust.
I suppose He isn’t, but the Fathers I’ve quoted never suggested the existence of another, and – this is just my personal opinion, though – I’ve always rather thought it terribly unjust if God were to hold back purity from original sin from everyone except Mary if it were well within His power to grant it to everyone.Why is God limited to one process in acheiving freedom from original sin?
Indeed, if God could simply by fiat erase the stain of original sin from a naturally conceived human being, what was the point of the Virgin Birth, the Incarnation, or any of the gospel, for that matter? Instead of sending his Son to become human, God could simply have cleansed each and every one of us at conception and waited for a man who finally would live a sinless life and thus be qualified to be our redeemer. But again, this is all just opinion – my main concern is that in the Fathers I’ve quoted, particularly in the writings of Pope Leo, even in those instances in which both Jesus and Mary are referenced, Jesus’ conception alone is held to be special and free from the taint of sin, while all other conceptions are considered natural and, consequently, tainted.
–Mike