M
mpartyka
Guest
Because it indicates what Pope Gregory believed and indicates that he was confident enough in this belief that he would communicate it to his fellow bishop, even if he didn’t do so in an “official” document. Granted, this is nothing “earth-shattering” to a person who understands the limitations on papal infallibility, but it is interesting to note just how certain views of history’s “Great” Popes conflict strikingly with what is taught in the Church today.Then is it your contention that the letter constitutes the ‘official teaching of the Church’? If so, on what basis? If not, why does it deserve so much attention?
It wasn’t itself part of Vatican II, but Humanae Vitae, which was written to reject the Commission’s repeated recommendation to allow artificial birth control to married Catholics, certainly was, wasn’t it? Which would make the Commission at least an “unofficial” part of Vatican II.It wasn’t part of Vatican II. Again, let’s not make it seem more important than it was.
I always find this kind of argument amusing: “Never mind what the Popes or the Bishops or the Fathers or the Laity think. What does the Church teach?” As if, once you’ve removed all those components, there is anything remaining of the Church!Perhaps not. The question, though, is whether the contrary was the official teaching of the Church.
That quote is very strange out of context, but we know what you mean (i.e. a morally sound reason to resort to artificial means of avoiding conception).Nor do I recall ever reading anything in the Fathers indicating “a morally sound reason for avoiding complete abstinence.”
No, I meant precisely what I quoted. The Fathers may have allowed that sex initiated for the sake of satisfying one’s physical urges rather than for procreation was not sinful per se, but that’s not the same as saying they found nothing immoral about it. This is regardless of contraception or lack thereof.
–Mike