Pope Sixtus V infallibility

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I’ve heard this pope dying before he could promulgate his error filled version of the vulgate is example of how a pope is prevented from speaking in error when exercising his infallibility. But why is a pope releasing a translation of a Bible considered a matter of infallibility?
 
I’ve heard this pope dying before he could promulgate his error filled version of the vulgate is example of how a pope is prevented from speaking in error when exercising his infallibility. But why is a pope releasing a translation of a Bible considered a matter of infallibility?
Yeah, I seriously doubt it, unless he was going to define it (e.g. “We declare, pronounce and define that only this version of the Scriptures teaches the Faith inerrantly” or something like that), in which case, infallibility WOULD kick in and he would be prevented. But if he wasn’t going to do so, then infallibility would not have applied. Merely promulgating a version of the Scriptures does not meet the first condition (“must intend to [definitively] teach”).
 
Doesn’t the “declare, pronounce and define . . .” formula only date from Vatican I in the 19th Century? And given centuries of scholarship into ancient languages, I wouldn’t think any translation would ever be regarded as infallible. Authoritative at that time, yes, but not infallible for all time. (Except for the King James Only crowd, and that’s a different issue.)
 
Doesn’t the “declare, pronounce and define . . .” formula only date from Vatican I in the 19th Century? And given centuries of scholarship into ancient languages, I wouldn’t think any translation would ever be regarded as infallible. Authoritative at that time, yes, but not infallible for all time. (Except for the King James Only crowd, and that’s a different issue.)
No, the formula was used in Unam Sanctam (1302; “we pronounce, declare and define that it is necessary for the salvation of every human creature to be subject to the Roman Pontiff”).

And although it pre-dates Vatican I, it still meets the conditions for infallibility, as tough as that definition is.
 
Scriptural translations don’t directly fall under the shadow of infallibility (which declares “you must believe this or exclude that”), but could be considered to intersect with it in a few ways. The first is that insofar as the translation would affect one’s understanding of key biblical concepts the authorization of the same translation would amount to endorsing the misreadings, but that is easily sidestepped by the understanding that no matter what the translation it must always be read with the mind of the Church and, at any rate, simply publishing a translation does not amount to imposing it (and to speak infallibly one must intend to bind). On the other hand, were a pope to require that the whole Church use his new translation of Scripture one might view this in light of the theological theory (not established dogma but a very popular idea) of disciplinary infallibility. The theory runs that if the Church were able to command us to do something immoral then our Lord’s promise of Mt 16 would have failed, so whenever the pope lays down law for the universal Church we can trust that - whether or not it mandates an optimal course of action - it cannot, at the very least, be directing us to do anything outright immoral or erroneous. Of course, even under this theory, for God to end a pope’s life rather than allow him to promulgate a bad translation, the translation error would have to pretty unambiguously teach error concerning dogma, so merely doctrinally fuzzy still wouldn’t do the trick.
 
It would only be indirectly related to the Church’s infallibility. If a corrupted translation of Scripture led to the Church universally corrupting the revelation of God entrusted to her, then the Church could certainly not be said to teach infallibly.
Doesn’t the “declare, pronounce and define . . .” formula only date from Vatican I in the 19th Century?
As has been mentioned it does not. But it is also not a necessary formula for infallibility. The First Vatican Council intentionally did not prescribe any formula because a variety had been used in the past (this was actually an issue debated at the Council). All the Pope has to do is manifest his intention as supreme teach of the faithful to definitively proclaim some doctrine binding on the whole Church. That formula is certainly one way that may manifest that intention, but its not the only way.
 
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