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indiecath
Guest
If you ever watch old movies about the pope or a pope. The Holy Father refers in the third person as “we” or “us”. Why is this?
That is not speaking the third person, but in the plural. For that, see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Majestic_plural.If you ever watch old movies about the pope or a pope. The Holy Father refers in the third person as “we” or “us”. Why is this?
Well that’s speaking in the third person.That is not speaking the third person, but in the plural. For that, see en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Majestic_plural.
No, it’s the first person plural. The third person would be “he” (singular) or “they” (plural).Well that’s speaking in the third person.
Right. It called the “royal we.” here’s an explanation off the 'net:No, it’s the first person plural. The third person would be “he” (singular) or “they” (plural).
The first-person plural pronoun used by a king or queen to refer to himself or herself, for example, “We are not amused,” a line attributed to Queen Victoria.
As it’s often used by newspaper editors, the term is also known as the “editorial we”. Mark Twain once said, “Only kings, presidents, editors, and people with tapeworms have the right to use the editorial ‘we’.”
ETYMOLOGY:
[From Old French roial, from Latin regalis (kingly) + Old English we. The practice of using “we” to refer to oneself is called nosism.
USAGE:
“Lately [Margaret Thatcher] has seemed to take almost a regal view of her position, using the royal we. On a television program after the birth of her first grandchild she said, ‘We have become a grandmother.’”
Anthony Lewis; Is It Thatcher’s Britain?; The New York Times; Mar 23, 1989.
wordsmith.org/words/royal_we.html
Are you talking about the papal “we”?I thought that it was not just in old movies, but is a current practice.
I had an vague impression of Pope John Paul II using it, but looking at his encyclical ORDINATIO SACERDOTALIS where he makes a binding judgement I see…
“** I **declare that the Church has no authority whatsoever to confer priestly ordination on women and that this judgment is to be definitively held by all the Church’s faithful.”
Just curious about:
- Does the pope still use it?
- Might previous popes have used “we” in the above statement?
Thanks for the research! :tiphat:Edmundus,
I just checked online at the Latin version of the text, and it uses the first person plural. So the instances of “I” above were small liberties taken by the translator (who may understand the oddness in English of referring to oneself in the plural).