C
ConstantineTG
Guest
There were also different schools of thought, different philosophies. I don’t think language along can persuade thought. Look at English speaking countries for example, one thing can be expressed using different words. But the different really is not the words used but the culture. Australians are different from Canadians which are different from Americans which are different from the British. They can still talk to each other and express similar thought, but words do have cultural concepts as well that one culture may have an expanded meaning whilst the other is not. Language, any language, is not precise unlike mathematics.Disclaimer: I agree with your overall point of not idolizing a language.
That said, it is clear that language did play a role in the development of somewhat different theologies between East and West in the early Church. I would argue that the role of language is equal to or greater than the role of culture. Greek simply has more ways of talking about theological concepts. Latin-speakers were sidelined for four centuries in the development of theological thought because translating Greek theological texts into Latin was virtually impossible… Latin just didn’t have the philosophical range of vocabulary for it.
Which is once again a great reason not to idolize a language. Greek, in many ways, can be considered a “superior” theological language.
I’m listening to an Orthodox bible study over a podcast and the priest explains some of the words in scripture in its original Greek. More often he has to explain not only what the word means but also the cultural context. Why did he say it this way, what does he mean by it? Even if you can grasp the meaning of the word alone, sometimes it is not enough.