M
mercygate
Guest
We have a deacon candidate in our parish, who is not due to be ordained until next June.
He has begun giving “reflections” at daily Mass. These are delivered directly after the Gospel reading. Canonically, they cannot be called “homilies” because no one not ordained at least to the diaconate may give a homily. OK. But it looks like a homily, it sounds like a homily, it smells like a homily, it is structured like a homily. There will be no perceptible change in the form or style after this guy is ordained . . .
The rationale is that deacon-candidates need to practice. Is this the norm in other dioceses? Why does he need to practice? Why shouldn’t the first year after his ordination be the break-in period? What’s the payoff here? Our bishop is pretty orthodox, so I’m thinking this may be a carry-over policy.
Should I pose the question to him?
He has begun giving “reflections” at daily Mass. These are delivered directly after the Gospel reading. Canonically, they cannot be called “homilies” because no one not ordained at least to the diaconate may give a homily. OK. But it looks like a homily, it sounds like a homily, it smells like a homily, it is structured like a homily. There will be no perceptible change in the form or style after this guy is ordained . . .
The rationale is that deacon-candidates need to practice. Is this the norm in other dioceses? Why does he need to practice? Why shouldn’t the first year after his ordination be the break-in period? What’s the payoff here? Our bishop is pretty orthodox, so I’m thinking this may be a carry-over policy.
Should I pose the question to him?