precedent for sprinkling baptism.

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I have heard many times that argument that baptism is supposed to be by immersion only because in the OT baptismoi was a purification process that included immersing in water. Today during my bible reading of Numbers I caught yet another glimpse of the NT church when in Ch8:7 the levites were sprinkled with water for the remission of their sins.

Not to say that this is exactly what was prescribed for baptism but that it shows that in the context of the prevailing culture that Christ built his church within, sprinkling of water was a method used to remiss sin.
 
I have heard many times that argument that baptism is supposed to be by immersion only because in the OT baptismoi was a purification process that included immersing in water. Today during my bible reading of Numbers I caught yet another glimpse of the NT church when in Ch8:7 the levites were sprinkled with water for the remission of their sins.

Not to say that this is exactly what was prescribed for baptism but that it shows that in the context of the prevailing culture that Christ built his church within, Sprinkling of water was a God Commanded and socially acceptable method used to remiss sin.
 
I have heard many times that argument that baptism is supposed to be by immersion only because in the OT baptismoi was a purification process that included immersing in water. Today during my bible reading of Numbers I caught yet another glimpse of the NT church when in Ch8:7 the levites were sprinkled with water for the remission of their sins.

Not to say that this is exactly what was prescribed for baptism but that it shows that in the context of the prevailing culture that Christ built his church within, sprinkling of water was a method used to remiss sin.
 
I have heard many times that argument that baptism is supposed to be by immersion only because in the OT baptismoi was a purification process that included immersing in water. Today during my bible reading of Numbers I caught yet another glimpse of the NT church when in Ch8:7 the levites were sprinkled with water for the remission of their sins.

Not to say that this is exactly what was prescribed for baptism but that it shows that in the context of the prevailing culture that Christ built his church within, sprinkling of water was a method used to remiss sin.
Good catch, dont forget Eze 36:
25"Then I will sprinkle clean water on you, and you will be clean; I will cleanse you from all your filthiness and from all your idols. 26"Moreover, I will give you a new heart and put a new spirit within you; and I will remove the heart of stone from your flesh and give you a heart of flesh.
27"I will put My Spirit within you and cause you to walk in My statutes, and you will be careful to observe My ordinances.
 
Also, consider the Didache [the Teachings of the Twelve Aposltes] regarding baptism…

The Didache is a very early Christian text *
Chapter 7. Concerning Baptism.
And concerning baptism, baptize this way: Having first said all these things, baptize into the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, in living water. But if you have no living water, baptize into other water; and if you cannot do so in cold water, do so in warm. ***But if you have neither, pour out water three times upon the head into the name of Father and Son and Holy Spirit. ***But before the baptism let the baptizer fast, and the baptized, and whoever else can; but you shall order the baptized to fast one or two days before.

Cold water refers to rivers - streams
Warm water to lakes - ponds - baths ?]
If neither [water in enough abundance for total immersion or partial then] - you may pour/sprinkle*
 
The Old Testament overwhelmingly favors the idea of sprinkling. Yet, the intertestamental Jews did develop some immersionist procedures which, of course, were not given by God. But there’s no reason why God could not ordain a baptism by immersion for his New Testament church, so the Old Testament example does not ultimately impact the question, except linguistically: the Greek word for baptism, used among Greek-speaking people during Old Testament times, was sometimes used for events that did not involve immersion. (And often it did refer to immersion.)

We can learn that much from the Old Testament example: the Greek word does NOT refer only to immersion.
 
I believe the first christians were ok with it as well. I think they were closer to the ancient cultural traditions than modern christians are
 
By “first Christians,” do you mean the first ones after the apostolic era, or do you mean the apostles themselves?

The apostles, of course, were recipients of new revelation from God. Their teachings were not dependent on culture, tradition, or Old Testament patterns. They laid out what God wanted for his church, and they did so infallibly with divine trustworthiness.

The Early Church Fathers, on the other hand, were simply trying to transmit what they had learned. As Ignatius said in one of his letters, (I’m paraphrasing from memory here), “I do not speak to you as John and Paul. They were apostles, I am not.” This explains why there is such a wide variety of ideas and positons in the fathers. As they sought to interpret and apply the apostolic tradition, inevitable differences arose. Some of these were due to cultural influences.

Regarding immersion, it shows up early. So does sprinkling. So does naked baptism, and trine baptism (three immersions), and giving the convert milk and honey or salt after the baptism. I doubt that the variety is of apostolic origin. Instead, I think it is just folks trying to make the ceremony more elaborate and pleasing to the senses.

You may remember that one of the reasons for the East-West schism was that the West (Rome) was baptizing by one immersion, instead of three “as the apostles taught” (according to the Greeks).

Although immersionists often appeal to the Greek word for proof (baptizo), the real strength of their argument stems from theology: what does baptism signify? If it symbolizes burial and resurrection, immersion follows naturally. If it symbolizes something else, then other modes might fit better.

All of this reasoning assumes that the New Testament doesn’t speak clearly regarding the mode of baptism. And, quite obviously, immersionists will never concede that.
 
By “first Christians,” do you mean the first ones after the apostolic era, or do you mean the apostles themselves?

The apostles, of course, were recipients of new revelation from God. Their teachings were not dependent on culture, tradition, or Old Testament patterns. They laid out what God wanted for his church, and they did so infallibly with divine trustworthiness.

The Early Church Fathers, on the other hand, were simply trying to transmit what they had learned. As Ignatius said in one of his letters, (I’m paraphrasing from memory here), “I do not speak to you as John and Paul. They were apostles, I am not.” This explains why there is such a wide variety of ideas and positons in the fathers. As they sought to interpret and apply the apostolic tradition, inevitable differences arose. Some of these were due to cultural influences.

Regarding immersion, it shows up early. So does sprinkling. So does naked baptism, and trine baptism (three immersions), and giving the convert milk and honey or salt after the baptism. I doubt that the variety is of apostolic origin. Instead, I think it is just folks trying to make the ceremony more elaborate and pleasing to the senses.

You may remember that one of the reasons for the East-West schism was that the West (Rome) was baptizing by one immersion, instead of three “as the apostles taught” (according to the Greeks).

Although immersionists often appeal to the Greek word for proof (baptizo), the real strength of their argument stems from theology: what does baptism signify? If it symbolizes burial and resurrection, immersion follows naturally. If it symbolizes something else, then other modes might fit better.

All of this reasoning assumes that the New Testament doesn’t speak clearly regarding the mode of baptism. And, quite obviously, immersionists will never concede that.
I agree except baptism only is a symbol for the body and the physical senses. it is literal purification for the soul.
 
I agree except baptism only is a symbol for the body and the physical senses. it is literal purification for the soul.
I see what you mean. I overlooked that possibility (being a Fundamentalist).

To take another approach, if the purification is accomplished by the infusion of the Holy Spirit, we always see the Holy Spirit descending upon the recipient in scripture. Some groups use this to argue for affusion (applying the water to the subject, either by pouring or sprinkling).

Others point out how often baptism is associated with burial in the New Testament. Since Scripture describes conversion as dying to the old life and being born again into the new one, these people see immersion as the only suitable interpretation of the passages regarding baptism.
 
I see what you mean. I overlooked that possibility (being a Fundamentalist).

To take another approach, if the purification is accomplished by the infusion of the Holy Spirit, we always see the Holy Spirit descending upon the recipient in scripture. Some groups use this to argue for affusion (applying the water to the subject, either by pouring or sprinkling).

Others point out how often baptism is associated with burial in the New Testament. Since Scripture describes conversion as dying to the old life and being born again into the new one, these people see immersion as the only suitable interpretation of the passages regarding baptism.
I can see their point. But if it is merely symbolic does it really matter how you do it or if you do it at all?

I
 
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