R
Roger12345
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Is the sin of presumption mortal or venial?
Correct. There is no such thing as a particular offense that is always mortal (or always venial). Any evil act can be mortally sinful, and any evil act can be venially sinful.No act, in and of itself, is “mortal” or “venial”.
How do you know what to confess to the priest?No act, in and of itself, is “mortal” or “venial”.
You should confess ALL sins (that you are aware of, obviously). You need not (and should not) try to distinguish mortal from venial. In fact, the Church teaches that nobody can make this distinction (not even ourselves). We cannot know if any particular sin is mortal or venial (because that would mean that we know “for sure” if we are in a state of Grace, which we cannot know - only God knows “for sure.”)How do you know what to confess to the priest?
I think there may often be a fine line between trust in God’s mercy and a presumption of mercy that can lead us to be careless in how we live. Perhaps as our walk with out Lord continues we get to understand that line better. Sometimes perhaps presumption is not so much an intentional sin, but an immaturity in the understanding of grace and mercy.Is the sin of presumption mortal or venial?
In regards to the Bolded…The Catechism seems to say differently.You should confess ALL sins (that you are aware of, obviously). **You need not (and should not) try to distinguish mortal from venial. In fact, the Church teaches that nobody can make this distinction (not even ourselves). ** We cannot know if any particular sin is mortal or venial (because that would mean that we know “for sure” if we are in a state of Grace, which we cannot know - only God knows “for sure.”)
Any sin can be mortal, and any sin can be venial. In Confession, the distinction does not matter - they are all absolved. Never withhold an offense that you think is too trivial to confess. I have confessed “serious” sins, and also a few “trivial” sins, and it is sometimes the “trivial” sin that my confessor wants to talk about.
We can be pretty darned sure, but not absolutely sure. Per the Sixth Session of the Council of Trent (Chapter-9):This indicates that one CAN know ( be conscious) that they have committed a mortal sin.
A (newly) Baptized Christian is clearly in a state of Grace. A Christian may forfeit this state by mortal sin. But no Christian may know for sure if s/he has actually done so - this knowledge belongs to God alone.For as no pious person ought to doubt the mercy of God, the merit of Christ and the virtue and efficacy of the sacraments, so each one, when he considers himself and his own weakness and indisposition, may have fear and apprehension concerning his own grace, since no one can know with the certainty of faith, which cannot be subject to error, that he has obtained the grace of God. [emphasis mine]
hhhmmmm…We can be pretty darned sure, but not absolutely sure. Per the Sixth Session of the Council of Trent (Chapter-9):
A (newly) Baptized Christian is clearly in a state of Grace. A Christian may forfeit this state by mortal sin. But no Christian may know for sure if s/he has actually done so - this knowledge belongs to God alone.
If we cannot know for sure whether we are in a state of Grace (whereas we were once certainly in such a state owing to our Baptism), we cannot know for sure if we have forfeited this state. My logic breaks down if we were never sure of being in a state of Grace in the first place, but we are assured of this fact. Therefore, we cannot possibly know for sure of our own condemnation.
Dave,We can be pretty darned sure, but not absolutely sure. Per the Sixth Session of the Council of Trent (Chapter-9):
A (newly) Baptized Christian is clearly in a state of Grace. A Christian may forfeit this state by mortal sin. But no Christian may know for sure if s/he has actually done so - this knowledge belongs to God alone.
If we cannot know for sure whether we are in a state of Grace (whereas we were once certainly in such a state owing to our Baptism), we cannot know for sure if we have forfeited this state. My logic breaks down if we were never sure of being in a state of Grace in the first place, but we are assured of this fact. Therefore, we cannot possibly know for sure of our own condemnation.
Like I said, we can be pretty darned sure, and this constitutes a type of knowledge that is well informed, but is not infallible. Just because we cannot ever know for sure does not mean we cannot ever know (even if our knowledge is incorrect). Whenever I have accused myself of mortal sin, it’s been pretty flippin’ obvious, at least to me. My confessor did not take issue with my assessment. But, if I was mistaken, it would not matter - I would have merely confessed a venial sin (which I’m supposed to do anyway).So how do you reconcile Trent with the statement in the Catechism (1456) that we must confess, “All mortal sins of which penitents after a diligent self-examination are conscious…” (Where conscious = aware = know)
I think Trent is speaking of obtaining Grace within the Sacramental economy (since the Church does not teach that any form of Grace besides Prevenient Grace is obtained apart from the Christian Sacraments).I think there may be a logical error in your reasoning there. You are speaking about losing grace via (supposed) mortal sin. I think Trent is speaking of gaining grace outside the sacraments. One thing may not actually correlate to the other.
As a Catholic I know that adultery is a sin of grave matter. Knowing that it means if I have an affair with another woman I have committed adultery and can be 100% sure I have committed a mortal sin.I think Trent is speaking of obtaining Grace within the Sacramental economy (since the Church does not teach that any form of Grace besides Prevenient Grace is obtained apart from the Christian Sacraments).
But I think I understand your point. Trent is saying that we cannot know for sure if we are in a state of Grace. I said that we cannot know for sure if we are guilty of mortal sin. Although (as you say) the claims are not the same (one speaks of obtaining a state of Grace, and the other speaks of losing it), I reason that one must follow the other.
Here is the complete logical construct:
- We are assured that we have been (at some point) in a state of Grace (Christian Baptism).
- We can only be removed from a state of Grace by mortal sin (Catholic dogma).
- Mortal sin is the ONLY thing that can remove us from a state of Grace, and it is 100% effective in doing so (Catholic dogma).
- If we knew for sure that we had committed a mortal sin, then we would know for sure that we are NOT in a state of Grace.
- We cannot know for sure that we are presently in a state of Grace (Trent).
- If we could know for sure that we are NOT in a state of Grace, then lack of this knowledge would tell us for sure that we ARE in a state of Grace.
- But we cannot know for sure that we are in a state of Grace (established).
- THEREFORE, we cannot know for sure that we have committed a mortal sin (which would mean we are NOT in a state of Grace), as mortal sin is the only thing that can remove us from a state of Grace (established).
OK David…Thanks for the clarification.Like I said, we can be pretty darned sure, and this constitutes a type of knowledge that is well informed, but is not infallible. Just because we cannot ever know for sure does not mean we cannot ever know (even if our knowledge is incorrect). Whenever I have accused myself of mortal sin, it’s been pretty flippin’ obvious, at least to me. My confessor did not take issue with my assessment. But, if I was mistaken, it would not matter - I would have merely confessed a venial sin (which I’m supposed to do anyway).
However, this exposes what I consider to be the greatest question for which the Catholic Church has no answer. It has been debated by theologians for many centuries. The question is: is it easy or hard for a person of good will to commit a mortal sin?
By “easy” and “hard,” I refer to the requirement of complete freewill assent, which is one of the three requirements for any sin to be mortal in nature. A person who gets drunk might be accused of the sin of gluttony (one of the seven deadly sins, making it a prime candidate for a mortal sin). But if the person is an alcoholic, could this “addiction” impede his free will (even to a very small degree) and thus reduce the sin to a venial state?
I would disagree that the Church does not have an answer to this question. I would assert that the answer is simply not an easy - cookie-cutter - one size fits all type answer. There can be many factors at play in any given situation.Alas, we cannot know. The answer does not appear to be part of the Deposit of Faith.
Roger - Having reflected on your OP some and recognizing that, as others have shown, there is not necessarily an easy answer to this, I am going to venture a response to your question here.Is the sin of presumption mortal or venial?
David,I think Trent is speaking of obtaining Grace within the Sacramental economy (since the Church does not teach that any form of Grace besides Prevenient Grace is obtained apart from the Christian Sacraments).
But I think I understand your point. Trent is saying that we cannot know for sure if we are in a state of Grace. I said that we cannot know for sure if we are guilty of mortal sin. Although (as you say) the claims are not the same (one speaks of obtaining a state of Grace, and the other speaks of losing it), I reason that one must follow the other.
Here is the complete logical construct:
- We are assured that we have been (at some point) in a state of Grace (Christian Baptism).
- We can only be removed from a state of Grace by mortal sin (Catholic dogma).
- Mortal sin is the ONLY thing that can remove us from a state of Grace, and it is 100% effective in doing so (Catholic dogma).
- If we knew for sure that we had committed a mortal sin, then we would know for sure that we are NOT in a state of Grace.
- We cannot know for sure that we are presently in a state of Grace (Trent).
- If we could know for sure that we are NOT in a state of Grace, then lack of this knowledge would tell us for sure that we ARE in a state of Grace.
- But we cannot know for sure that we are in a state of Grace (established).
- THEREFORE, we cannot know for sure that we have committed a mortal sin (which would mean we are NOT in a state of Grace), as mortal sin is the only thing that can remove us from a state of Grace (established).
We are assured that we have been (at some point) in a state of Grace (Christian Baptism).
We can only be removed from a state of Grace by mortal sin (Catholic dogma).
Mortal sin is the ONLY thing that can remove us from a state of Grace, and it is 100% effective in doing so (Catholic dogma).
If we knew for sure that we had committed a mortal sin, then we would know for sure that we are NOT in a state of Grace.
We cannot know for sure that we are presently in a state of Grace (Trent).Up to this point, we are in absolute agreement. However:
…is not true. For example, we may have not been diligent enough to discover the mortal sin. We could know, but willfully do not, or through lack of diligence do not.If we could know for sure that we are NOT in a state of Grace, then lack of this knowledge would tell us for sure that we ARE in a state of Grace.
To see how the statement may not be true, lets look at the contranegative:
let A=“we could know for sure that we are NOT in a state of Grace”
and B=“lack of this knowledge would tell us for sure that we ARE in a state of Grace”.Then if “A implies B” is true, then by logic, “not B implies not A” is also true. .So, doing “not B=>not A”, we have:" tell us for sure that we are in a state of grace,If "lack of the sure knowledge that we are NOT in a state of grace does not
(that is, if “presence of sure knowledge that we are not in a state of grace does” tell us for sure that we are in a state of grace,)
-then-
we could know for sure that we are in a state of grace,
But this is not obviously true. Sure knowledge of not being in the state of grace cannot tell one if he is in the state of grace. It can only tell him if he is not. This is because there is always that possiblity that one does not have this sure knowledge. Just because sure knowledge exists does not mean we are privy to it in all cases.
But we cannot know for sure that we are in a state of Grace (established).
THEREFORE, we cannot know for sure that we have committed a mortal sin (which would mean we are NOT in a state of Grace), as mortal sin is the only thing that can remove us from a state of Grace (established).
No, this THEREFORE should be as follows:
" tell us for sure that we are in a state of grace,)"THEREFORE, Presence of sure knowledge that we are not in a state of grace does NOT
Up to this point, we are in absolute agreement. However:
(it is unfortunate that your quote-nesting got messed up.)If we could know for sure that we are NOT in a state of Grace, then lack of this knowledge would tell us for sure that we ARE in a state of Grace.
OK, my logic was not rigorous enough. I should have added one condition:
We cannot know for sure (through any diligence of our own, regardless of how diligent we might be) if we are in a state of Grace (Trent).
Either way, we do not know for sure if we are in a state of mortal sin. We might be culpable for this ignorance (AND to the sin to which this ignorance applies), but I still maintain that we could not (with any degree of diligence) know for sure one way or another.We could know, but willfully do not, or through lack of diligence do not.
If we are Baptized (and thus were, at one point, in a state of Grace), and we cannot know for sure if we remain in a state of Grace, then we cannot know for sure if we have forfeited our state of Grace. Since mortal sin is the ONLY thing that can remove us from a state of Grace, we cannot know for sure if we have committed a mortal sin.
But we can be pretty darned sure.