R
ryanoneil
Guest
Agreed!Yes. God acts with prevenient grace, even to the wicked. If we resist, the act of resisting grace is our act alone; it is not cooperative with the grace of God.
This is what is confusing me. I am assuming that (1) also moves man’s will toward the good (by virtue of grace alone). God acts first and my will is actually moved toward the good because (1) has had it’s full effect.(1) prevenient grace is given, and it has its full effect of enabling us to avoid sin, for example.
(2) then if we choose to sin, we have rejected cooperating grace, but not prevenient grace. We already received from God the ability to avoid sin, and we chose not to exercise that abililty by cooperating with grace.
If I resist, I am pushing back against the fact that my will has already been moved toward the good.
I am acting second- after the full effect of (1)- of my own accord- without the grace of (2).
I don’t understand how I can be pushing back against (2). (2) wills the movement of the will (by virtue of grace along with human freewill). I would have responded positively had God given (2), but God did not give it. How can I resist something that God did not give in the first place? God acts first.