Priest necessary for confession?

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The priest in the old testament practiced Judaism, so they aren’t the same as a catholic priest.
True. the OT priesthood could never forgive sins.
t:
Jesus is now our high priest in heaven we can go directly to him and ask forgiveness. The only reason someone might want to go to a priest is so they can have someone affirm that God has forgiven them. Not everyone needs to be reaffirmed that God hears our request, many people have enough faith to believe God hears our prayers.
**Hebrews 10:4-15 **Re: the OT priests

4 For it is impossible that the blood of bulls and goats should take away sins.
5 Consequently, when Christa] came into the world, he said,
“Sacrifices and offerings thou hast not desired,
but a body hast thou prepared for me;
6 in burnt offerings and sin offerings thou hast taken no pleasure.
7 Then I said, ‘Lo, I have come to do thy will, O God,’
as it is written of me in the roll of the book.”

8 When he said above, “Thou hast neither desired nor taken pleasure in sacrifices and offerings and burnt offerings and sin offerings” (these are offered according to the law), 9 then he added, “Lo, I have come to do thy will.” He abolishes the first in order to establish the second. 10 And by that will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.
11 And every priest stands daily at his service, offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins. 12 But when Christ**(“http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=heb 10:4-15&version=RSVCE#fen-RSVCE-34304b”)] had offered for all time a single sacrifice for sins, he sat down at the right hand of God, 13 then to wait until his enemies should be made a stool for his feet. 14 For by a single offering he has perfected for all time those who are sanctified. 15 And the Holy Spirit also bears witness to us; for after saying,

But NT priests that Jesus establishes have that power

John 20:21-23

And it is really a power. They really do forgive or retain sins, just as Jesus says.
 
What’s your point? I don’t understand.
When you previously said (emphasis mine)
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tacdon:
The only reason someone might want to go to a priest is so they can have someone affirm that God has forgiven them. Not everyone needs to be reaffirmed that God hears our request, many people have enough faith to believe God hears our prayers.
  • iow you’re saying the sacrament Jesus instituted is useless and redundant. Jesus really didn’t give priests any power when He said “whose sins you forgive they are forgiven and whose sins you retain they are retained”.
That’s why I also responded here #[61 (http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=12011505&postcount=61)

God doesn’t institute useless things. His sacraments do what He institutes and intends them to do through His validly ordained priests in the only Church He established, the Catholic Church. #[34 (http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=11997086&postcount=34)
 
One other source, also from a Jewish scholar, who affirms what I have said – that it was indeed aural confession! Chapter 5: “I entreat, O Jehovah: I have sinned, I have done perversely, I have rebelled, I have committed (naming the sin, trespass, or in case of a burnt-offering, the breach of positive or negative command); but I return in repentance, and let this be for my atonement.”
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Sirach2:
So now I have provided three sources that all say the same thing.
Actually, this is an interesting claim. I would say that you aren’t providing multiple sources, but rather, multiple people who are using the same source. Both this quote and the quote from The Miracle of the Scarlet Thread use language that is identical, verbatim, with the quote you originally provided (Otho’s Lexicon rabbinico-philologicum); his assertion of the text of the prayer, in Latin, is what these other sources are (seemingly) copying. The only difference, of course, is that where Otho reads “& hoc & illud”, these authors interpret him to mean “I have committed (naming the sin)” (Booker) or “I have committed (naming the sin, trespass or… breach of positive or negative command)” (Edersheim). Therefore, it would seem that you haven’t provided multiple sources so much as you’ve provide authors who are relying on a single source (viz., Otho).

Let me be perfectly clear: when we see, on the internet, hundreds of outlets parroting the same assertion, we don’t claim that we have hundreds of sources. Rather, we recognize that many writers are simply repeating what they heard and which can be attributed to a single source. So, yes, you’ve found many who repeat Otho, and who interpret him (perhaps, even, you’ve found that Booker references Edersheim, who himself references Otho!). 👍
This is a reputable source that is referenced even here at CAF in the Library. It shows an attitude of superiority to dismiss this source
Oh, no, please don’t get me wrong! The 1907 Catholic Encyclopedia is a valuable source! It’s valuable to get a perspective on what was being taught at the turn of the last century; it’s also valuable in order to see how the faith was presented at that point in time. Of course, it’s important to understand what it is not: it is not an exposition of the way the faith is presented by the Church today. It is no longer what it intended to be at the time of its publication (“the latest and most accurate information to be obtained from the standard works on each subject”). No, if that’s what you want, then you need to go to the current version – the New Catholic Encyclopedia (from 1983, I believe).

Why does Catholic Answers (as well as New Advent and Google Books) have the 1907 version of the Catholic Encyclopedia online? For one simple reason: the current Catholic Encyclopedia is under copyright, but the 1907 version is in the public domain. It’s not here because it’s still the “latest and most accurate information”; it’s here because they can legally place it here. That’s good, and it’s a valuable resource; but, we can’t presume that, since it’s here, it’s the final word on all things Catholic. In the past 100 years, scholarship hasn’t been in stasis. 😉

So, does the 1907 Catholic Encyclopedia represent an infallible guide to contemporary scholarship? Certainly, not. One easy place to see this is in its treatment of ‘Limbo’, in which it states, among other things, that “it may confidently be said that, as the result of centuries of speculation on the subject, we ought to believe that these souls enjoy and will eternally enjoy a state of perfect natural happiness” and “(unbaptized infants) are excluded eternally from the vision of God. In this sense they are damned”. Is that the current teaching of the Church, however? Certainly not. In its 2007 document The Hope of Salvation for Infants Who Die Without Being Baptised, the ITC states, “This theory [of limbo], elaborated by theologians beginning in the Middle Ages, never entered into the dogmatic definitions of the Magisterium, even if that same Magisterium did at times mention the theory in its ordinary teaching up until the Second Vatican Council.” While noting that it is a “possible theological hypothesis,” it states that “the Catechism teaches that [for] infants who die without baptism, [there is] hope that there is a path to salvation.” Clearly, there’s a difference in the teaching here. Which do we go with, then? What the Catechism teaches us, or what the 1907 Catholic Encyclopedia tells us? You can have your “reputable source;” I’ll stick to the current teaching of the Church and to current scholarship, thank you very much… 😉
in favor of your book, which you elevate to a be-all, end-all dogmatism
Certainly not. However, since my sources represent current scholarship, I’d assert that they be given preference over older sources.
Oh, wait – I have provided my -]sources/-] source
Oh, I see what you did there! That’s cute! Yet, it’s inaccurate: I pointed out not only Dallen’s assertions, but also, the assertions that are found in the footnotes of the NAB. Sources, plural, thank you – unlike your sources, which clearly appear to be simple re-statements from the same, single, medieval-era source.
I did offer contradiction and opposition, but you chose to spin it with subterfuge
Right: what you argue is “contradiction” and “opposition”, but what I argue is merely “subterfuge”. Ad hominem much? 😉

Blessings,
G.
 
Gorgias, the topic is “Is the priest necessary for confession?” Yes.

Your sophistry in attempting to prove something that has no solid proof other than a modern day priest who has a few attributions, is still not conclusive. Nor are my sources false due to a lack of so-called attributions from Jewish scholars. Jews understood the background and did not require attributions.

:bowdown: Since this discussion has no bearing on the OP’s question as it relates to today, and is your incessant desire to win the debate, I concede so that the topic may move forward… Note that I do not accept your priest’s interpretation, and you are certainly free not to accept my Jewish scholars’ interpretation. It proves absolutely nothing conclusively.

End of discussion.
 
I would add this

Is God limited to the sacrament of confession to forgive sins? No.

If God can forgive outside of confession why go? Simple answer only in confession is our forgiveness guaranteed. Asking God to forgive your sins through your own personal prayer is no guarantee. Sure God can forgive you but he chooses to do it through his priest in the sacrament of confession.

note: because the priest is the minister of the sacrament he must be there for it to be valid.
 
Gorgias, the topic is “Is the priest necessary for confession?” Yes.
It is? That’s why you said, “I believe, in light of the instructions from God regarding the “scapegoat” in Lev. 16:21… God required confession to the priest”? I’m not refuting the assertion that a priest was necessary for atonement (in fact, I explicitly said so, in post 27); our disagreement is your assertion that aural confession was part of the Jewish observance of atonement. 🤷
Your sophistry in attempting to prove something that has no solid proof other than a modern day priest who has a few attributions, is still not conclusive.
🤷 Fine… modern scholars who cite their sources are wrong, and ancients who don’t are right. 👍
Nor are my sources false due to a lack of so-called attributions from Jewish scholars. Jews understood the background and did not require attributions.
:rotfl:

(Sorry… that may be perceived as rude – yet, it’s pretty funny…) After all, you’re saying that a medieval Jewish scholar gets a pass – strictly because he’s Jewish – to cite references on Mosaic-era Jewish practices? That’s like saying that you can say whatever you like about 1st-century Christian practice, since you “understand the background”!!! You can see how absurd that assertion is… can’t you?
Note that I do not accept your priest’s interpretation, and you are certainly free not to accept my Jewish scholars’ interpretation.
Fair enough. Scholarship is scholarship precisely because researchers give priority to a variety of sources.
 
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