Priest said "Jesus absolves you" instead of "I absolve you"

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SSPX priests cannot validly confect the Eucharist, because any Sacrament would need faculties from the Church. since the Church has removed them from priestly ministries for the time being, the only Sacraments they can validly confer are Baptism, which even laypeople can do, and Confession but only in the instance of an emergency
This is definitely not true. Faculties are not required to confect the Eucharist, only the proper form, matter, intent, and Holy Orders. No matter how “defrocked,” “laicized,” or even excommunicated a priest may be, he is a priest forever according to the order of Melchizedek, and can (though it would be a grave sin) confect the Eucharist.
 
First off, to answer your question Benedicstgal, no, this did not occur the Catholic Center at my college, it is at my home parish where I will be obtaining the sacraments this summer until I go back to school. 🙂

So… from what I’ve read, it sounds like my confession was valid, although illicit? So i don’t need to go back to confession, right?

And in the future if something like this happens… do I let the priest know? And when, right after he says the “incorrect” form of absolution?
 
Frankly, whatever words the priest may use doesn’t make much difference. To begin with, priests don’t forgive sins, God does. The next important point is the sincere repentance of the person confessing. If it becomes a rote matter, simply going routinely to confession without a deep sense of penitence, it’s invalid. Sometimes much more than a few Hail Marys are needed. Didn’t Jesus say that if we come to the altar and have something against another person, go and be reconciled before you return to the altar? Something like that - in the Sermon on the Mount.
Code:
 Sadly, confession has become institutionalized and formalized over the centuries and is too often a routine ritual. The absolution frequently is done in a rote fashion, also. There is something phoney about a confession of a venial sin without deeply-felt sorrow.

 It's my experience that confession is rare among Catholics these days. I have a friend who recently went to confession for the first time in 20 years. Even then, she came away feeling that it was more a formula than a genuine encounter. For another thing, the confession was not in a confessional but out in the open - troubling to her because it lacked adequate privacy. No, people couldn't hear what she said but she was observed during the confession which made her uncomfortable. I doubt if she goes again - the way she talks. She is having deep doubts about Catholicism, partly because of the sex scandal, but also because she wants priests free to marry and women to play a more leading role in the leadership of the church, etc.  She has been impressed by various female ministers in the area.

 One other thing. Sometimes I think confession was emphasized because it gave power to the Church and its clergy. Wow! If a priest can forgive sins, what power!  Like the priest, by saying the prayer of consecration, performs the mystery and miracle of transubstantiation.

 Then, again, I'm inclined to think outside the box. Can we do that without sinning?
 
This is definitely not true. Faculties are not required to confect the Eucharist, only the proper form, matter, intent, and Holy Orders. No matter how “defrocked,” “laicized,” or even excommunicated a priest may be, he is a priest forever according to the order of Melchizedek, and can (though it would be a grave sin) confect the Eucharist.
but as a Catholic you still cannot receive communion from a Church not in Full Communioin with Rome
 
Frankly, whatever words the priest may use doesn’t make much difference. To begin with, priests don’t forgive sins, God does. The next important point is the sincere repentance of the person confessing. If it becomes a rote matter, simply going routinely to confession without a deep sense of penitence, it’s invalid. Sometimes much more than a few Hail Marys are needed. Didn’t Jesus say that if we come to the altar and have something against another person, go and be reconciled before you return to the altar? Something like that - in the Sermon on the Mount.
Code:
 Sadly, confession has become institutionalized and formalized over the centuries and is too often a routine ritual. The absolution frequently is done in a rote fashion, also. There is something phoney about a confession of a venial sin without deeply-felt sorrow.

 It's my experience that confession is rare among Catholics these days. I have a friend who recently went to confession for the first time in 20 years. Even then, she came away feeling that it was more a formula than a genuine encounter. For another thing, the confession was not in a confessional but out in the open - troubling to her because it lacked adequate privacy. No, people couldn't hear what she said but she was observed during the confession which made her uncomfortable. I doubt if she goes again - the way she talks. She is having deep doubts about Catholicism, partly because of the sex scandal, but also because she wants priests free to marry and women to play a more leading role in the leadership of the church, etc.  She has been impressed by various female ministers in the area.

 One other thing. Sometimes I think confession was emphasized because it gave power to the Church and its clergy. Wow! If a priest can forgive sins, what power!  Like the priest, by saying the prayer of consecration, performs the mystery and miracle of transubstantiation.

 Then, again, I'm inclined to think outside the box. Can we do that without sinning?
With all due respect, your post denies the very biblical basis of Confession. Jesus explicitly and clearly stated to the Apostles (as passed on to theri successors and collaborators) that:
21 He said therefore to them again: Peace be to you. As the Father hath sent me, I also send you. 22 When he had said this, he breathed on them; and he said to them: Receive ye the Holy Ghost. 23 Whose sins you shall forgive, they are forgiven them; and whose sins you shall retain, they are retained.
You are also denying, as I read your post, the very words that Christ spoke to St. Peter:
And I say to thee: That thou art Peter; and upon this rock I will build my church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it. 19 And I will give to thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven. And whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth, it shall be bound also in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose upon earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven.
If the Church, through the Successor of St. Peter, has any power, it is because it was deemed so by no less than Jesus Christ, Himself. Thus, to deny the existence of Confession and the authority of the Church is to deny Jesus, Himself, and His own Word.
 
Frankly, whatever words the priest may use doesn’t make much difference. To begin with, priests don’t forgive sins, God does. The next important point is the sincere repentance of the person confessing. If it becomes a rote matter, simply going routinely to confession without a deep sense of penitence, it’s invalid. Sometimes much more than a few Hail Marys are needed. Didn’t Jesus say that if we come to the altar and have something against another person, go and be reconciled before you return to the altar? Something like that - in the Sermon on the Mount.

Actually, the words he use do matter. From what I can see, you are not a Catholic, and while I appreciate you adding your two cents and trying to help the situation, you coming here to post a random rant about your incorrect opinions of the Catholic Church is not helping, at all.

I take offense to the fact that you think that Catholics are “unrepentant” and that we honestly believe a “few Hail Marys” are all that we need in order to be absolved. Really? Or was this just you ranting? I may not know a lot about the specifics of the liturgy, but I definitely know enough theology and philosophy to be able to refute stereotypical and biased sentiments like these. I would appreciate if, in the future, you could think about what you were posting before actually doing so – because in this instance, you are coming off as very unknowledgeable and narrow-minded.
Code:
 One other thing. Sometimes I think confession was emphasized because it gave power to the Church and its clergy. Wow! If a priest can forgive sins, what power!  Like the priest, by saying the prayer of consecration, performs the mystery and miracle of transubstantiation.
 
By the way, can anyone answer my question? lol Seeng as how it’s the difference between me having to go o confession to get mortal sins re-confessed or not, I deem this kinda important. 😃
 
By the way, can anyone answer my question? lol Seeng as how it’s the difference between me having to go o confession to get mortal sins re-confessed or not, I deem this kinda important. 😃
No one here can definitively answer your question, since the answer is a matter of opinion. There seem to be four views here:

  1. *]Valid because it’s within the “wiggle room” or margin of error of the original rite (my view).
    *]Invalid because the change in wording here is an essential change in the meaning.
    *]Valid because it uses a valid Eastern formula.
    *]Invalid because the priest can’t use rites not prescribed by his faculties, at least for this sacrament (also my view, but I say still valid because of #1).

    What I think most of us can agree on is that whether it was sloppiness or purposeful distortion of the rite, it’s unwise and a disservice to the faithful for priests to change the words of the rite, because we don’t really know exactly where the boundary line is, so changes can put sacramental validity at risk.
 
By the way, can anyone answer my question? lol Seeng as how it’s the difference between me having to go o confession to get mortal sins re-confessed or not, I deem this kinda important. 😃
Your absolution was valid, your sins have been forgiven 👍
 
No one here can definitively answer your question, since the answer is a matter of opinion. .
No more so than if a priest did an illicit action, such as using a Byzantine Eucharistic Prayer at Mass, would affect the validity of the Eucharist.

The Sacrament would still be Valid, but not licit.
 
No more so than if a priest did an illicit action, such as using a Byzantine Eucharistic Prayer at Mass, would affect the validity of the Eucharist.
As we discussed earlier, there are differences in how the Church treats the Sacraments of Penance and Eucharist; the validity of the former very much depends on the scope of the faculties granted to the priest.
 
As we discussed earlier, there are differences in how the Church treats the Sacraments of Penance and Eucharist; the validity of the former very much depends on the scope of the faculties granted to the priest.
Correct, has the OP indicated that the local Ordinary has not granted faculites to hear confession to the priest in question?
 
No more so than if a priest did an illicit action, such as using a Byzantine Eucharistic Prayer at Mass, would affect the validity of the Eucharist.

The Sacrament would still be Valid, but not licit.
Hello again, Brendan,

A problem is that, in the case at hand, the priest did not use any approved formula of absolution, Latin, Byzantine, or otherwise. Simply saying “Jesus absolves you” is not the same as asking for forgiveness, like the Chaldean prayer. It’s even more different from the Byzantine formula, which expresses some priestly agency of forgiveness.

Earlier, you said this priest was the minister of Sacramental grace. How do the words “Jesus absolves you” reflect any “ministry?”

I must say I am still “on the fence”…

Thanks for your time.
Dan
 
I read in Catholic Encyclopedia that this form is valid in the Eastern Catholic churches (and Eastern Orthodox), but in the Latin rite, it should be “I absolve you”. I don’t know if the absolution was valid… it was definitely illicit for the Latin rite… (not for the Eastern churches)

I would confess again, just in case, and explain what happened.
 
I read in Catholic Encyclopedia that this form is valid in the Eastern Catholic churches (and Eastern Orthodox), but in the Latin rite, it should be “I absolve you”. I don’t know if the absolution was valid… it was definitely illicit for the Latin rite… (not for the Eastern churches)

I would confess again, just in case, and explain what happened.
It sounds wierd. Why would the priest make such a change to the form of the sacrament.

From what I can gather the whole process boils down to the essential words “I absolve you from your sins”.
Words are important.

I actually think this is very serious.error on the part of the priest. I believe that you should talk to your bishop about this with the greatest of urgency for the sake of others who say their confessions to this priest. Your bishop should advise whether the confession needs to be redone or not.

Why should confusion exist in our ranks? Why do so many priests feel that they have the power to change words and rubrics in the rites and sacraments of Holy Mother Church?
 
Hello again, Brendan,

A problem is that, in the case at hand, the priest did not use any approved formula of absolution, Latin, Byzantine, or otherwise. Simply saying “Jesus absolves you” is not the same as asking for forgiveness, like the Chaldean prayer. It’s even more different from the Byzantine formula, which expresses some priestly agency of forgiveness.

Earlier, you said this priest was the minister of Sacramental grace. How do the words “Jesus absolves you” reflect any “ministry?”

I must say I am still “on the fence”…

Thanks for your time.
Dan
You bring up some interesting points. Even if he says “Jesus absolves you”, he does not even seem to follow the formula for the Eastern Rites, unless, of course, each of the Eastern Rites has its own particular formula.
 
You bring up some interesting points. Even if he says “Jesus absolves you”, he does not even seem to follow the formula for the Eastern Rites, unless, of course, each of the Eastern Rites has its own particular formula.
They do not, you will also see that refernced in CCC 1481. There are actually several formuals in the Byzantine Church alone, and it’s not unheard of for a priest to use his own.

The equivalent example in the West would be the Act of Contrition. One element of a valid Confession is that the penitent express sorrow for their sins. The Church publishes a valid Act of Contrition.

But how many would consider the Sacrament to invalid if my act of contrition was “God, I am sorry that I sinned, please forgive me, I hope to do better next time”

We can also see that even if a priest made up his own Eucharistic prayer, as long as it had a Epiclesis and the Institutional Narriative, it would become the Blessed Sacrament, before which we all should adore.

The fact is, the formula used for the absolution of sins has varied widely throughout history and through out the Church. As such, the Church correctly recognizes that that there really can be no set formula that is the only one that is valid. Like making up a Eucharistic Prayer, even ones not published by the Church are quite valid. Even more so, because the theologic requirements are substantially reduced. All that is really necessary is to inform the penitent that their sins are forgiven.

Another example would be the blessing at the end of Mass. If the priest said “May Christ the Lord Bless you in the Name…” instead of “May Almighty God Bless you…” who here whould consider themselves NOT to have recieved a blessing?
 
Earlier, you said this priest was the minister of Sacramental grace. How do the words “Jesus absolves you” reflect any “ministry?”

I must say I am still “on the fence”…

Thanks for your time.
Dan
To minister is to perform a service. The priest performs the service of hearing the confession and making the determination if absolution is warrented. The forgiveness of sins comes from Christ, because Christ is the offended party. It comes THROUGH the priest.

Read the Chaldean prayer of absolution, what ministry does the priest offer there?
 
I have noticed that sometimes the Priest asks me for an act of contrition, and other times doesn’t… why?
 
The fact is, the formula used for the absolution of sins has varied widely throughout history and through out the Church. As such, the Church correctly recognizes that that there really can be no set formula that is the only one that is valid.
It’s clear that Brendan recognizes this; I don’t think you’ve proven that the Church recognizes this.
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Brendan:
Like making up a Eucharistic Prayer, even ones not published by the Church are quite valid.
I don’t accept the equivalence of these two sacraments in your argument, since validity of the Sacrament of Penance is more easily constrained by the law than the Sacrament of the Eucharist. For instance, we have Canon 966
§1. The valid absolution of sins requires that the minister have, in addition to the power of orders, the faculty of exercising it for the faithful to whom he imparts absolution.
A happy-go-lucky priest may wander into the next town for a picnic, meet a group of local Catholics, and decide to celebrate an impromptu mass there in the park. Being concerned about the state of communicants, he may hear a few confessions behind a tree prior to the mass. There would be nothing invalid about the mass, but the Sacrament of Penance would be invalid, since he lacks faculties to hear confessions in the territory.

Likewise there are currently limits on the validity of general absolutions, and the validity of absolution of an accomplice in adultery is denied. These laws have not always been around, and may at some point disappear. Without them, such absolutions would be valid.

So the current law is important, and the key in this case as I mentioned earlier is the faculties. If the letter from the bishop granting the faculty says simply “You can hereby absolve sins in my diocese,” then I think the specifics of the Rite of Penance aren’t as important. If the letter instead says “You can hereby absolve sins according to the approved rites and laws of the Church,” the subtle difference would render invalid those formulations that differ markedly from those currently approved in the Latin church.
 
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