J
JReducation
Guest
GOOD GRIED NO NO NO! That’s not what the doctrine on religious life says. It’s saying that the religious life and the life of celibacy are superior to the married state, not that those who are priest or religious are holier than married people… A man or woman is called to a higher calling, but can go to hell as quickly as the next guy if he or she is not faithful in his response to the call. Then you have people like St. Giana Molla who was called to marriage and motherhood and was much holier than I am. She’s a canonized saint and I’m still struggling to be faithful to prayer.Thank you.
I guess, what I’m asking is, do you think or do you interpret these statements as saying that objectively married people are less holy than those in religious orders/consecrated life?
The holiness of the consecrated state and the priestly state are consistent with the Gospel. Jesus does choose celibacy for himself and speaks of its sanctifying effect for the sake of the Kingdom. He also chose the religious life which he lived with his apostle, a life in community and also lived in the Trinity. But if you notice, Judas betrayed him, Peter denied him and Thomas doubted. Even though they were called to a holier life, they did not always act very holy.If so…do you really think that’s coherent with the Gospel of Jesus Christ?
The doctrine that was handed down by Christ and St. Paul was that the celibate state was superior to Christian marriage. However, both are very clear on the fact that marriage is a good thing and Peter goes on to explain it very well that marriage is a great source of grace and an opportunity for charity between the spouses. That’s how the Church concluded that marriage was a sacrament, because it had two qualities: the power to sanctify (if lived correctly) and it is binding until death, just as faith should be binding until death.Having an “objective superiority” is ok…depending on what that statement is referring to. Is it referring to a superiority to Christian marriage?
Let’s clarify. This is not my claim. I just gave you the doctrine of the Church. I didn’t make any of those statements. Their sources are next to each statement.Is there anything you find in the teachings of Vatican II or the Catechism that support your claim?
Second, there is a document from Vatican II called Perfectae Caritatis; however, it does not go into the doctrine on religious life. Vatican II did not deal on too many doctrinal issues. What it did was tho explain for religious and for the world how religious life is to be lived in the 20th century. The last statement on the doctrine of religious life was made by Benedict XVI in a public address. He simply repeats what was handed down to us from Trent, in different words. John Paul II wrote a document called Vita Consacrata, which also speaks about the consecrated life.
Trent does not make a claim, it goes a little further than that. Trent repeats the doctrine as it was handed down from Paul and declares that whoever does not believe it should be anathema, which can lead to excommunication. To be anathema is to be loathed, to be pushed aside, to be condemned in some way. Modern Church language uses different wording to say the same thing, just not so harshly. We would say that such a person is not in full communion with the Church.The Council of Trent citation is ok. I’m not claiming one state is superior to the other, which is what Trent seems to be teaching against.
Does this help?
Fraternally,
Br. JR, OSF