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Simple question…
Is there Biblical basis for denying priests the right to be married?
Is there Biblical basis for denying priests the right to be married?
Do you mean to ask if there is a Biblical basis for the Church only selecting men for the priesthood who have made the decision to renouce marriage for the sake of the Kingdom?Simple question…
Is there Biblical basis for denying priests the right to be married?
Recall that St. Peter and the other Apostles, the first priests, left their homes and families when Our Lord called on them to follow Him.thank you. would it be too much trouble to ask for specifics, like some books or verses![]()
Excellent, thank you both.Recall that St. Peter and the other Apostles, the first priests, left their homes and families when Our Lord called on them to follow Him.
Sorry - had to jump off for a second. Here are the passages I was thinking about from Scripture that commended the celibate state as the “higher” state spiritually…such a calling is a gift for the sake of the Kingdom of God…Matthew 19:10-12thank you. would it be too much trouble to ask for specifics, like some books or verses![]()
And you explain I Corinthians 9:5 how?Recall that St. Peter and the other Apostles, the first priests, left their homes and families when Our Lord called on them to follow Him.
I’m not familiar with all the different translations out there now, or the original Greek transcripts, but the Douay Rheims has this note with the verse:1 Corinthians 9:5And you explain I Corinthians 9:5 how?
There is no such thing as the RIGHT to be married. Not even within a secular context (no matter what homosexual agenda might say). There is only the privilege to get married.Simple question…
Is there Biblical basis for denying priests the right to be married?
You are correct. The Eastern Catholic Churches may ordain married men and some of them do so. It is upheld in their canon law, and in some cases in their treaties of union. The Union of Brest brought the Ukrainian Church into the Catholic Communion and listed it as article 9.At times, such as at the earliest times, it has been possible for the Church to select already married men for the priesthood (still possible even today in certain Rites of the Church and in extraordinary cases even in the Latin Rite), but what was never “allowed” is for an already ordained man to get married. This is true even in the Eastern Rites (and still maintained by the Orthodox I believe).
Douay is reading late Latin practice into the text. The Fathers for instance have preserved St. Peter’s words to his wife at her martyrdom, etc…, along with the words of the bishop being the husband of one wife (no, they did NOT interpret it as meaning the Church).I’m not familiar with all the different translations out there now, or the original Greek transcripts, but the Douay Rheims has this note with the verse:1 Corinthians 9:5
Have we not power to carry about a woman, a sister, as well as the rest of the apostles, and the brethren of the Lord, and Cephas?
*5 “A woman, a sister”… Some erroneous translators have corrupted this text by rendering it, a sister, a wife: whereas, it is certain, St. Paul had no wife (chap. 7 ver. 7, 8) and that he only speaks of such devout women, as, according to the custom of the Jewish nation, waited upon the preachers of the gospel, and supplied them with necessaries. *
At times, such as at the earliest times, it has been possible for the Church to select already married men for the priesthood (still possible even today in certain Rites of the Church and in extraordinary cases even in the Latin Rite), but what was never “allowed” is for an already ordained man to get married. This is true even in the Eastern Rites (and still maintained by the Orthodox I believe).
This article from CA has alot of helpful information packed in a short tract…Celibacy and the Priesthood.
Peace in Christ,
DustinsDad
I Corinthians was written by St Paul, not St Peter. St Paul never married. Notthing to do with “Late Latin practices”. You’re the one who is “reading in” something which isn’t there.Douay is reading late Latin practice into the text. The Fathers for instance have preserved St. Peter’s words to his wife at her martyrdom, etc…, along with the words of the bishop being the husband of one wife (no, they did NOT interpret it as meaning the Church).
Read the quote. He mentions St. Peter by name (“Cephas”).I Corinthians was written by St Paul, not St Peter. St Paul never married. Notthing to do with “Late Latin practices”. You’re the one who is “reading in” something which isn’t there.
There are legitimate and lovely reasons to have celibate clergy which can be shown through Biblical quotes and early church writings. Bashing the venerable traditions of 22 of the 23 Catholic Churches as being not beneficial, unfair. senseless, and the exception to the rule isn’t one of them.The fact is that marriage is discouraged for those who choose to devote their lives to serving the Lord; however, there are exceptions.
Try to think of it this way: Priests are to be available to their flock 24/7. Marriage doesn’t benefit the flock, and it wouldn’t benefit the family of the Priest, as a married man has obligations to his wife and children. It’s not fair to the parish, the wife and children, or the Priest. It only makes sense. Keep in mind, exceptions are just that, exceptions, not the norm.
I bashed no one, just stated a fact. Protestant ministers marry; it still isn’t fair for the family or the parish that the priest should have to divide his time that way, and the Bible makes that clear.There are legitimate and lovely reasons to have celibate clergy which can be shown through Biblical quotes and early church writings. Bashing the venerable traditions of 22 of the 23 Catholic Churches as being not beneficial, unfair. senseless, and the exception to the rule isn’t one of them.
Why don’t you show us where the Bible makes it clear that married parish priests are unfair? That is what the OP is looking for.I bashed no one, just stated a fact. Protestant ministers marry; it still isn’t fair for the family or the parish that the priest should have to divide his time that way, and the Bible makes that clear.
Well Sherlock, all one has to do is read Mt. 19: 11-12; I Corinthians 7, and 2 Tim 2: 3-4. You might find Corinthians appealing to this cause, as St. Paul says that one should marry ony if they can’t help themselves, if they can’t keep themselves from fornication, then let him have a wife. Marriage, according to St. Paul, and Jesus, is for those who are not strong enough to remain celibate. This doesn’t mean that marriage is bad, but celibacy is the higher calling. Happy?Why don’t you show us where the Bible makes it clear that married parish priests are unfair? That is what the OP is looking for.
Many in the early church thought that Jesus’ return was imminent and there was no point in marrying or raising families. They had no idea that it would be 2,000+ years before His return. Their understanding of the times led them to write eloquently and forcefully on the benefits of celibacy for everyone, including priests. It was a tradition of the western Church to have predominantly celibate clergy from the earliest times. At the same time, the eastern Churches did not have the same influences and they had married clergy from the earliest times. They wrote eloquently and forcefully on the benefits of married clergy. The OP is apparently aware of those writings and is unaware of the writings which extol the benefits of celibate clergy.
Instead of bashing one of the venerable traditions of the Catholic Church, you could just answer the OP’s question and provide the Biblical quotes you say you are in possession of.