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Nathan_Wagar
Guest
I am aware of the primacy of Rome, since even the easter orthodox admits to Rome as a “first among equals.” What my question regards is at what point did the bishop of Rome become univeral over the whole church? Even Steven Ray’s book “Upon this Rock” appears a bit fuzzy about this prcoess. He shows the primacy of Peter, then the primacy of Rome, but he is not as clear about when and how Rome moved into more than mere primacy. Eastern Orthodox would claim that Rome basically decided to bring everybody under Rome.
And sorry about my inconsistent capitalization. I seem to care less about good writing as I go along in life and I apologize…
And sorry about my inconsistent capitalization. I seem to care less about good writing as I go along in life and I apologize…