CONTINUED
I am unsure of this. The Pope does not in fact do so, but I don’t know whether he is in principle incapable of doing so. There are plenty of good reasons for the Pope not to arbitrarily meddle with the Eastern Churches - they are perfectly competent on their own, abolishing ancient traditions is generally a catastrophe (e.g. the “Novus Ordo” Mass), and relations have been so poor historically that doing so could lead to another schism. But to say that the Holy Father lacks an intrinsic jurisdiction to act motu proprio on the Eastern Churches seems to me to be not fully consistent with the “sovereignty of ordinary power over all other Churches, and that this power of jurisdictin of the Roman pontiff, which is truly episcopal, is immediate” (Dogmatic Constitution of the Church of Christ chapter 3).
As stated, just because the Pope’s authority is divinely established, this does not mean that it cannot be regulated by the Church. The Church has done so in the past, and it is the same now. For example, the most ancient canons of the Church state that though BISHOPS even in different patriarchal jurisdictions can directly appeal to the Pope, priests can’t do that, because
they are under the direct authority of their own bishop). This was recently reinforced in matters involving the Ukrainian Catholic Church and the Malankara Catholic Church. In both instances, dissident groups of priests and laypersons appealed to the Pope to permit them in their Latinizations. The Pope refused to even hear their appeals for a long time (IIRC), and when he finally spoke up, he simply sided with the decisions of the local Synods. A lot of people probably viewed this as a “papal decision,” but in truth, it was not his decision to make. The Pope was simply adhering to the ancient standard that only bishops can directly appeal to the Pope. This ancient rule is really for the good order of the Church, and it is not hard to imagine why.
I know that many view the Pope’s restraint as merely self-imposed, and that if the Pope wanted to - say - depose a bishop because he doesn’t like his beard (I’m exaggerating, but you know what I mean

), he actually has the authority to do so, I am not of that view. I look at it this way:
A father has plenary authority in his household, but does that mean he has the authority to abuse his wife or beat his kids, or establish laws that disrespect his wife and kids? Scripture says that a wife cannot refuse herself to her husband, and vice-versa, but does this give the husband the authority to rape his wife?
Can the Pope, for instance, deny me confession if I ask for it? Can he deny the Viaticum to a sick or dying person? If you say he has universal authority, then why can’t he?
So the issue is not whether the Pope has plenary (or universal) authoriity in the Church, but, rather, what are the things that he is permitted to do with that authority. More to the point of our discussion, can he perform actions that violate the rights and prerogatives of his brother bishops? Vatican 1, Vatican 2 and our canons assert very clearly that he cannot. Vatican 2 teaches that this is the will of the Holy Spirit.
Let’s take the topic under discussion - a
motu proprio. Canon law says that a
motu proprio that violates the acquired rights of individuals is
INVALID. Canon law also says that every bishop is competent (i.e., on his OWN authority) to discipline and instruct the faithful under him. Let me ask you this: If the Pope decided to issue a
motu proprio to a group of Maronite Christians, instructing them to do something, hasn’t he violated the inherent right of the Maronite bishop as pastor of his flock? I mean, at that point, the Pope has acted as if the Maronite bishop did not even exist. You can’t tell me that he has not violated the rights of the Maronite bishop. He has not only violated the canons, but also the infallible teaching of V1 and V2.
So, to address the main point of your statement above, the Pope’s “sovereignty of ordinary power over all Churches” is not contradicted by the fact that he
can’t issue
motu proprio’s validly to individuals within another
sui juris Church. If he MUST involve himself in a discplinary matter to individuals within another
sui juris Church, he must and
can only do it through the hierarchical authority in that Church.
Blessings,
Marduk