L
LSK
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I don’t know if this will help but I was taught to understand this passage in this manner: St. Paul was making suggestions at a time when those people most suited to the Priesthood in the area he was addressing were men who were married. There was also areas of the world where polygamy was still practiced. He was offering guidelines for married men who were called to the priesthood - guidelines tht are valid today for those men who receive permission to become priests and are already married.Valid point…but how can St. Paul’s instructions in 1 Timothy:3 be understood?
The saying is sure: If any one aspires to the office of bishop, he desires a noble task. 2 Now a bishop must be above reproach, the husband of one wife, temperate, sensible, dignified, hospitable, an apt teacher, 3 no drunkard, not violent but gentle, not quarrelsome, and no lover of money. 4 He must manage his own household well, keeping his children submissive and respectful in every way; 5 for if a man does not know how to manage his own household, how can he care for God’s church? 6 He must not be a recent convert, or he may be puffed up with conceit and fall into the condemnation of the devil; 7 moreover he must be well thought of by outsiders, or he may fall into reproach and the snare of the devil.
Again, not an argument, just trying to figure out how can St. Paul’s instructions to the Timothy be conveyed in modern times. And why would the idea of a priest or bishop beign married back then, change in our present society (I know times are different)? Are deacons not ordained to a life of service to the bishop and the church, yet also allowed to raise a family (I know priests and deacons have different duties)?
Help me out here. Thanks
I also have been taught that this is one of the reasons celibacy is a DISCIPLINE rather than a doctinre. Dogma? One of the two. My dyselxia is kicking in…