I understand how people like to look at the bible as a product of its time. However, if you believe that, there’s really no reason to adhere to it as the bible itself claims to NOT be a product of its time.
Isaiah 40:8
The grass withers, the flower fades, But the word of our God stands forever.
Given that the word does indeed discuss homosexuality, it is not pertinent to dismiss it. Attempts at suggesting that passages are mistranslated doesn’t suffice. The original greek tends to solidify that homosexuality is meant.
Likewise, you have Romans 1:26-27 to contend with, which doesn’t have to use the term “homosexual” to get its point across.
The passage in Genesis is not an indictment of homosexual sex…it is a story of rape and violence against strangers…Ezekiel helps interpret the passage.
Leviticus prohibition is addressing pagan practices verses Israelite practices…the very reason that Leviticus was written was so that Israel would not follow in the footsteps of it’s pagan neighbors in how they treated their enemies in male/male victimization with captives of war and the pagan same sex ritual practices and or religious practices in general…the verse preceeding Lev.18.22 refers to Molech…the passage in Lev 22 specifically uses the word “zakhar” and in other places in scripture where it is used typrically means " man or male animal specially dedicated to a deity for some sacred function". The word “abomination” is “to’ebhah”, which typically in other passages signifies “to things that related to idolatry”…ritual uncleaness…
The Levitcal passages are related to a passage in"Deut 23:17-18, which reads: [17] “There shall be no whore [NRSV:
‘temple prostitute’] of the daughters of Israel, nor a sodomite [NRSV: ‘temple prostitute’] of the sons of Israel. [18] Thou shalt not bring the hire [NRSV: ‘fee’] of a whore [NRSV: female ‘prostitute’], or the price of a dog [NRSV: ‘male prostitute’], into the house of the Lord [Yahweh] thy God for any vow: for even both of these are abomination unto the Lord [Yahweh] thy God.” "Sodomite’ is a distorted translation of the Hebrew which never refers to Sodom.
In Romans chapter 1 the whole chapter is concerning the religious practices of the pagans who are now Christians…temple protitution was common…male and female temple prostituion specifically.
Corinth had a thriving prostitution temple cult…male and female. The “corrupter of boys”…pedastry was a common practice which Christians were not to engage in…older men using younger boys as sex objects in return for their patronage until the boys became men.
There are other understandings of these passages which in no way reflects any modern understanding of same sex relatinships.
“Homosexual” is a 19th century word unknown in ancient times…nor did the ancients understand the complexities of human sexuality nor biology…they believe the woman was simply an incubator for the male seed…they had no idea of the role of a woman in the exhange of biological matter…nor did they understand that the sex of the child was determined by the male…how many women throughout history suffered because they couldn’t “give their husband a son”…no one until the 19th century knew the sex of the child was determined by the male…not the female.
We seek to remain faithful to an understanding of a Christian ethic…perhaps not your ethic…but an ethic based in reason and culture which we seek to understand scripture.
Don’t get mad now, I just want an explanation.:tsktsk:
That’s why were Catholic. I just wanted a Protestant’s view.
Even so, I don’t believe many would think it possible, but we’ll see.
I was just referring to sexual immorality in general and how Paul was clearly against it. But I do apologize for any misunderstanding.