B
bransoncraig
Guest
hi folks,
I’m brand new here, so feel free to redirect me to a different forum if I’ve got the wrong one. Also feel free to point me to an earlier thread if this stuff has already been covered. (A cursory search on my part didn’t turn up anything directly related.)
I’ve been reading Hebrews lately, and a couple of questions have come up. I chose Hebrews in the first place because it deals with the sin of apostasy–and apostasy has been a major temptation for me lately. I’m just not sure I believe this deposit of faith anymore.
Question 1: Heb. 10:26-7 says (in RSV-CE): “For if we sin deliberately after receiving knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, but a fearful prospect of judgment…”
The Hebrews Author has been arguing that the sacrifice of Christ is final–in contrast to the ongoing animal sacrifices of the Mosaic law. The verse quoted above seems to imply that, because of this finality, a deliberate sin (a mortal sin, presumably) committed after baptism cannot be forgiven. I recall that, in the early church, people commonly waited to be baptized until almost the moment of death, for precisely this reason. (The Emperor Constantine is an example of such a deathbed baptism.)
But then the Hebrews Author would seem to be in contradiction with the Catholic teaching on the sacrament of penance. I must be making a mistake, right? Can we dismiss this concern by simply citing development of doctrine?
Question 2: The first part of Hebrews Ch. 8 deals with the superiority of the sacrifice of Christ over the Old Testament sacrifices. “For if that first covenant had been faultless, there would have been no occasion for the second.” (Heb. 8:7). Sacrifices under the old law didn’t really have the power to take away sin, and so the priests kept offering them, day after day, for centuries. But the sacrifice of Christ is once-and-for-all, and therefore superior, according to the Hebrews Author.
My question is: If the sacrifice of Christ is really superior, shouldn’t that be reflected in the daily lives of Christians? It seems to me like the ancient Israelites would continually fall into sin, and then seek forgiveness through ceremonies involving sacrifice. In much the same way, Catholics (like myself) continually fall into sin, and seek forgiveness through the sacrament of penance. Outwardly, at least, nothing much seems to have changed, at least with regard to the lived experience of sin. So how can the new covenant really be superior to the old one?
I’m sorry for the length. Any feedback would be much appreciated.
I’m brand new here, so feel free to redirect me to a different forum if I’ve got the wrong one. Also feel free to point me to an earlier thread if this stuff has already been covered. (A cursory search on my part didn’t turn up anything directly related.)
I’ve been reading Hebrews lately, and a couple of questions have come up. I chose Hebrews in the first place because it deals with the sin of apostasy–and apostasy has been a major temptation for me lately. I’m just not sure I believe this deposit of faith anymore.
Question 1: Heb. 10:26-7 says (in RSV-CE): “For if we sin deliberately after receiving knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, but a fearful prospect of judgment…”
The Hebrews Author has been arguing that the sacrifice of Christ is final–in contrast to the ongoing animal sacrifices of the Mosaic law. The verse quoted above seems to imply that, because of this finality, a deliberate sin (a mortal sin, presumably) committed after baptism cannot be forgiven. I recall that, in the early church, people commonly waited to be baptized until almost the moment of death, for precisely this reason. (The Emperor Constantine is an example of such a deathbed baptism.)
But then the Hebrews Author would seem to be in contradiction with the Catholic teaching on the sacrament of penance. I must be making a mistake, right? Can we dismiss this concern by simply citing development of doctrine?
Question 2: The first part of Hebrews Ch. 8 deals with the superiority of the sacrifice of Christ over the Old Testament sacrifices. “For if that first covenant had been faultless, there would have been no occasion for the second.” (Heb. 8:7). Sacrifices under the old law didn’t really have the power to take away sin, and so the priests kept offering them, day after day, for centuries. But the sacrifice of Christ is once-and-for-all, and therefore superior, according to the Hebrews Author.
My question is: If the sacrifice of Christ is really superior, shouldn’t that be reflected in the daily lives of Christians? It seems to me like the ancient Israelites would continually fall into sin, and then seek forgiveness through ceremonies involving sacrifice. In much the same way, Catholics (like myself) continually fall into sin, and seek forgiveness through the sacrament of penance. Outwardly, at least, nothing much seems to have changed, at least with regard to the lived experience of sin. So how can the new covenant really be superior to the old one?
I’m sorry for the length. Any feedback would be much appreciated.