T
Tantum_ergo
Guest
With the earlier thread going beyond the 1000 post limit I don’t think the question above had a chance to be discussed or answered.
I hear a lot of people who say that if an action is ‘legal’ it can therefore be defended as ‘moral’. (Abortion a case in point).
But other legal actions (in other countries, for example, it is legal to stone a woman found guilty of adultery) this legal action is condemned as **immoral. **
So I’m curious.
Why the double standard? Either there are some actions which (though legal) are not moral, and cannot be justified on moral grounds no matter how ‘legal’ they are held to be. . .or BAM! the act of ‘legislating’ can turn an action which was once both illegal and immoral (abortion in the U.S. prior to 1973) into a 180 degree turnaround where it is both legal and moral.
So. . .what ‘magic’ makes an action ‘moral’ or ‘immoral?’ and what authority can we know we have determined the action truly for all time? For morality is not something which is true at one time, or for one ‘group’, but not for other times or other groups.
I hear a lot of people who say that if an action is ‘legal’ it can therefore be defended as ‘moral’. (Abortion a case in point).
But other legal actions (in other countries, for example, it is legal to stone a woman found guilty of adultery) this legal action is condemned as **immoral. **
So I’m curious.
Why the double standard? Either there are some actions which (though legal) are not moral, and cannot be justified on moral grounds no matter how ‘legal’ they are held to be. . .or BAM! the act of ‘legislating’ can turn an action which was once both illegal and immoral (abortion in the U.S. prior to 1973) into a 180 degree turnaround where it is both legal and moral.
So. . .what ‘magic’ makes an action ‘moral’ or ‘immoral?’ and what authority can we know we have determined the action truly for all time? For morality is not something which is true at one time, or for one ‘group’, but not for other times or other groups.