Prophetic past - Jeremiah?

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Why don’t you try googling and see what you come up with. There are some articles that discuss that question - but the couple I looked at were lengthy - no quick answers. There might be differing opinions by scholars. The articles I scanned use “prophetic perfect” rather than “prophetic past”.

I think you’d find this article interesting. The author refers to a very literal translation of the Bible (by the author of Young’s Concordance) which is available online. Here’s a link to the OT book of Jeremiah.
Happy reading. 🙂
 
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Are you talk about the reference in Matthew 27:3-10?
When Judas, who had betrayed him, saw that Jesus was condemned, he was seized with remorse and returned the thirty pieces of silver to the chief priests and the elders. “I have sinned,” he said, “for I have betrayed innocent blood.” “What is that to us?” they replied. “That’s your responsibility.” So Judas threw the money into the temple and left. Then he went away and hanged himself. The chief priests picked up the coins and said, “It is against the law to put this into the treasury, since it is blood money.” So they decided to use the money to buy the potter’s field as a burial place for foreigners. That is why it has been called the Field of Blood to this day. Then what was spoken by Jeremiah the prophet was fulfilled: “They took the thirty pieces of silver, the price set on him by the people of Israel, and they used them to buy the potter’s field, as the Lord commanded me.”
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Thank you. It might also be called “post eventum prophecies.” Unless I’m confused.
 
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I was unable to find any definition of “prophetic past” (tense?) online. I assumed you meant the same as prophetic perfect, but if “post eventum prophecy is what you meant, I assumed wrong. Prophetic perfect and post eventum prophecy are opposites in meaning.

Prophetic perfect is where a person speaks/writes of a future event that is so certain to occur that it’s “referred to in the past tense” (source - Wikipedia) as if it had already happened.

A post eventum prophecy or “prophecy from the event” is where a person speaks/writes of a known past event as though he is foretelling a future event yet to occur. (source - Wikipedia)

Which of the 2 were you looking for.

So many modern scholars are claiming prophecies in Scripture were written after the event – because they reason on the premise that it’s not possible for someone to accurately foretell a future event!!! St. Paul’s words in Romans 1:22 come to my mind: “While claiming to become wise, they became fools”.
 
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Thank you. I was looking for prophetic perfect, now that I see the descriptions.

My interest in this is in my study of Jeremiah’s book of consolation ch 30-33. The prophets can be difficult to decipher because they are either pre-exilic or post-exilic. But since the exile happened over the course of years, it’s hard to identify what audience they are writing to. Then, when some prophets write in prophetic perfect or post eventum prophecy, the timeframe can be even more confusing.
 
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