Prostate cancer and prostatectomy issues

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That was not what I was getting to. I agree with what you just said.

Rather, the point of interest to me was your statement that semen was not necessary for the meaning of the marital act. I have seen nothing authoritative on this or it’s opposite, but a number of posts in other threads have contended that non-ejaculatory intercourse is a sin because it is not the marital act without male completion.
Oh, I see what you are getting at. I think I’m relating to this particular person’s condition. In his case it is not necessary since he is incapable of releasing it and he is not withholding it. He is still having a climax of some sort. The form of intercourse is intact even if the fertility is not present. Now, if one has semen production and fertility , one must make sure it ends in the correct place.

Just my opinion I guess not direct church teaching I could point you to.
 
I have a question. I am an unmarried 62 year-old man & have been single my entire life. As part of being single all my life, I have fallen into a longtime state of compulsive masturbation since I have no wife with whom to share sexual relations.

Recently I was diagnosed with prostate cancer and, about a month ago, I underwent a daVinci prostatectomy – the entire prostate & seminal vesciles were removed. If/when my sexual ability returns, all future orgasms will be “dry.”

If I should resume masturbating in the future, with all dry orgasms, will it be a mortal sin?
It would not be sinful because it’s not quasi. It’s fully intercourse and entirely licit, with its unitive and procreative aspects intact. It’s only that the procreative part was frustrated due to no fault of the man but he is holding nothing of himself back.

Yes it will be sinful and in call cases because whether or not there is semen is irrelevant. It’s the act of masturbation that is sinful.

The intercourse is unitive, the masturbation is not. Therefore the intercourse is completely licit and moral, while the masturbation is completely illicit and immoral.
 
**That seems like a double standard doesn’t it? The woman may achieve climax through touches but the husband may not achieve climax through touches?

I know that in some cases because of injury or illness, the man cannot achieve an erection but can however reach climax. Because of the impossibility of intercourse in this case, don’t you think God in His loving mercy would be pleased that a husband and wife could still experience the unitive part of the gift of sex?
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It is not a double standard. The woman’s orgasms are irrelevant to intercourse. The man’s are very relevant, as the man transmits life to the woman.

No, intentional mutual masturbation to orgasm is never permissible. Personally, I find the thought that God cares about anyone’s sexual satisfaction to be profoundly weird. Sexual frustration is nothing compared to the pains which many martyrs have suffered for His sake; I have a hard time believing He would suspend natural law just so one can avoid moderate discomfort. God wants your perfection, including the perfection of your body, and that means using your faculties in the way they were intended – and thus your sexual faculty in a manner conducive to the end of procreation.
I’m having a hard time finding a Catholic definition of “sexual intercourse”. Most any secular definitions seem to include ejaculation in the vagina. Canon law states that “consummation” is necessary for valid marriage but again, I can’t find a clear definition of what consummation means other than sexual intercourse. I searched the usccb website to no avail. I agree that sterility would not cause a moral problem, but I don’t think I’m “splitting hairs” here. Can consummation mean - excuse the expression - “a quick in and out” with no ejaculation? I know this isn’t the OP, but what I’m getting at here is if a man is able to have an erection but not ejaculation - how could that be consummation? Or is the ‘intent’ all that really matters?
No sex is permissible unless it is ordered toward procreation, i.e., toward intravaginal ejaculation. Hence, this is what the Church means when it speaks of sexual intercourse. Consummation of a marriage is the first act of intravaginal ejaculation, which seals the marital bond and renders it permanently indissoluble by anything but the death of one spouse.

Inability to ejaculate is an impediment to marriage, so such a person would not be able to get married. Once a marriage has been consummated, however, it is indissoluble, so a condition arising later causing impotence would not dissolve the marriage.

I don’t know, though, if impotence acquired later in marriage thereafter requires the couple to live chastely. There is a good case to be made that it does, since the marriage act can no longer be completed in a manner consistent with its end.
 
My concerns and monumental trepidation on this subject have nothing to do with my supportive moral aspects pertaining to marriage and sexual-relations in keeping fully with the Moral Teachings with the Magisterium of the Catholic Church.

Quite frankly; being single my fears are too great to submit to invasive medical procedures of any kind and most of all with the topic of this thread… Without going into a long winded discussion lets just say I’ve had bad traumatic experiences in the past and couldn’t put myself under any invasive test or surgical procedure of the sort.

So my question here is it a sin to ignore invasive medical procedures pertaining to the title of this thread even if deemed necessary. Fear is an awful motivator where traumatic past experiences happen in ones life.

Its difficult to trust in these situations.
 
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