Protestant Argument about The Real Presence

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What they are saying, is that those words have a vastly different meaning than there is today. Look up the Lutheran theologian Harnack. Many consider him the leading linguistic expert of the twentieth century on the Latin language of that time period. He flat out says in looking not only at early church documents, but a vast number of secular documents from that time period, that those three words have an opposite meaning now than they did then. You have yet to show me one historian, or linguistic expert that agrees with you. Every early church father believed that all of the elements of the Eucharist became fully Jesus. None of what looked like bread, was actually bread after the blessing. That is what all those historians I quoted have said is meant by the Real Presence. If not one crumb of bread remains bread, than that precisely fits the definition of transubstantiation. Would you accept a more accurate translation, knowing that your arguments then fail? If you do not accept the evidence that is presented now, I doubt if changing the language would appease you.
Yeah, I am wondering that as well…
So you think their scholarship is biased? You do not believe they can rise above such biases, and present the truth?
That kind of thinking has a problem in that by extension would disqualify Susan’s own opinion as well. Facts and faith…gotta have 'em.
Adoration, is, and has always been, the highest form of worship. From the beginning of Christianity, to give adoration to anything or anyone besides God, has always been considered idolatry. And yet Augustine, knowing to command adoration of anything but God would be commanding idolatry, still commands it of the Eucharist. Hmmm :hmmm:
It seems to me that St. Augustine is anything but a viable source for Susan’s position.

Here again I think we see one of the problems that non-Catholics have. Essentially every single one of them, because of Sola Scriptura, has to reinvent the wheel of Christianity every single day because they have to interpret their beliefs and the scriptures on their own especially since without reference to the verifiable writings of the early church, (Oh no! Sacred Tradition! :eek:) they haven’t got the insights of those who were discipled by the apostles. It just doesn’t work very well…
 
My Grandmother was watching a televangelist on her TV and it caught my attention when I heard him say that Jesus was not speaking literally when he said “This is my body”

The guys argument went something like. Jesus called himself a lot of things. He also called himself the living water. He was not speaking literally there. If we take “This is my Body” literally, we have to take everything else literally too."

My faith is not shaken at all by this because this man probably ordained himself a minister or was ordained by a relative who ordained himself at a church founded only withing the last 100 years but I have actually never heard this argument. How would one refute it? I already know the whole “How can we eat this mans flesh” and they walked away and Jesus did not correct them like he did for the apostles when they were confused and mistaken about the meaning of his parables. Anything else?

What else did Jesus call himself that we do not take literally and why not? I am fairly familiar with scripture and I can think of “Alpha and Omega” (although we do take that literally too) “Morning star” “Bread of Life” (Literally too) “The Lamb” and I know there are more. What else? Was he also calling Himself “The Living water”? I know he said he would give living water but is that living water Himself and why don’t we take that literally? Just playing devils advocate there. I help teach RCIA and I just want to be better prepared to teach, always.
They believed in the real presence from the beginning. Check Ignatius of Antioch’s letters from the first century. This type of argument is a new development.
 
This really should be over in Apologetics, but maybe the mod will move it.

Meanwhile, have a look at my blog article The Eucharist IS Scriptural

That TV preacher is dead wrong and way out of New Testament context and one key point is the following verse in Mark 4;34 ***Without parables he did not speak to them, but to his own disciples he explained everything in private.

***If this is true (and we know it is) then John 6 was a make or break non-negotiable in context of John 6:67 After this many of his disciples went back; and walked no more with him. 68 Then Jesus said to the twelve: Will you also go away? 69 And Simon Peter answered him: Lord, to whom shall we go? thou hast the words of eternal life. 70 And we have believed and have known, that thou art the Christ, the Son of God. "

Notice the difference? No private explanation…and just the question as to if they all want to bail too. Very cut and dried, right? So then obviously Jesus meant exactly what He said and everyone on hand knew it and reacted accordingly. The modern n-C misinterpretation just doesn’t hold water.🙂
👍 Awesome. I have never though of it that way. Thank you
 
This is beautiful and I hope the OP reads and listens and opens his heart… I think he says he believes in the Real Presence but wonder how many of us FEEL it the way you have described! Thank you.
Of course I believe in the real presence. This was not a “I am having doubts” thread. This is a “I am a RCIA catechist in The Catholic Church who wants to be able to answer as many questions as the elect and candidates ask him but I have never heard this argument againts The Real presence so help me out” thread 🙂

I am a protestant convert. I came into The Church 3 years ago. I became a Catechist. I would not do either if I did not believe in The Real Presence.
 
Susanlo,

You are confusing Augustine’s reference to the action of eating, which action is figurative in its physical nature, with a notion, that he does not ascribe to, that is, that the elements of the Eucharist are themselves figurative.
The understanding of the elements of the Eucharist was varied in the early centuries. By approximately 1000 AD the concept of transubstantiation was understood by most and became the only accepted understanding. Quite a few in the early centuries taught differently. One example:

Augustine: Christian Doctrine - Chapter 16 - 24
“If the sentence is one of command, either forbidding a crime or vice, or enjoining an act of prudence or benevolence, it is not figurative. If, however, it seems to enjoin a crime or vice, or to forbid an act of prudence or benevolence, it is figurative. “Unless you eat the flesh of the Son of man,” says Christ, “and drink His blood, you have no life in you.” John 6:53 This seems to enjoin a crime or a vice; it is therefore a figure, enjoining that we should have a share [communicandem] in the sufferings of our Lord, and that we should retain a sweet and profitable memory [in memoria] of the fact that His flesh was wounded and crucified for us.”
The vice is the physical eating of a body. However, we eat sacramentally, not physically. But that doesn’t preclude the fact that the elements are substantially (although not physical, ie, with characteristics that can be measured physically) our Lord’s Body and Blood.
This whole section is on whether something is literal or figurative. He mentions this earlier in the writing:
"Chapter 9.— Who is in Bondage to Signs, and Who Not.
  1. Now he is in bondage to a sign who uses, or pays homage to, any significant object without knowing what it signifies: he, on the other hand, who either uses or honors a useful sign divinely appointed, whose force and significance he understands, does not honor the sign which is seen and temporal, but that to which all such signs refer. Now such a man is spiritual and free even at the time of his bondage, when it is not yet expedient to reveal to carnal minds those signs by subjection to which their carnality is to be overcome. To this class of spiritual persons belonged the patriarchs and the prophets, and all those among the people of Israel through whose instrumentality the Holy Spirit ministered unto us the aids and consolations of the Scriptures. But at the present time, after that the proof of our liberty has shone forth so clearly in the resurrection of our Lord, we are not oppressed with the heavy burden of attending even to those signs which we now understand, but our Lord Himself, and apostolic practice, have handed down to us a few rites in place of many, and these at once very easy to perform, most majestic in their significance, and most sacred in the observance; such, for example, as the sacrament of baptism, and the celebration of the body and blood of the Lord. And as soon as any one looks upon these observances he knows to what they refer, and so reveres them not in carnal bondage, but in spiritual freedom. Now, as to follow the letter, and to take signs for the things that are signified by them, is a mark of weakness and bondage; so to interpret signs wrongly is the result of being misled by error. He, however, who does not understand what a sign signifies, but yet knows that it is a sign, is not in bondage. And it is better even to be in bondage to unknown but useful signs than, by interpreting them wrongly, to draw the neck from under the yoke of bondage only to insert it in the coils of error."
    newadvent.org/fathers/12023.htm
The sign is bread and wine. The reality behind it is our Lord’s Body and Bood.

From Augustine’s Tractate 27, paragraph 11, on John6, v60-72 below, we can clearly see Augustine believed that indeed the Bread and Wine become our Lord’s Body and Blood.
—let all this, then, avail us to this end, most beloved, that we eat not the flesh and blood of Christ merely in the sacrament, as many evil men do, but that we eat and drink to the participation of the Spirit,
peace
steve
 
Of course I believe in the real presence. This was not a “I am having doubts” thread. This is a “I am a RCIA catechist in The Catholic Church who wants to be able to answer as many questions as the elect and candidates ask him but I have never heard this argument againts The Real presence so help me out” thread 🙂

I am a protestant convert. I came into The Church 3 years ago. I became a Catechist. I would not do either if I did not believe in The Real Presence.
I did not mean to offend. I appreciated that post and it made me wonder how many of us Catholics realize the Real Presence with such love. Sorry if I hurt your feelings…
 
Susanlo,

You are confusing Augustine’s reference to the action of eating, which action is figurative in its physical nature, with a notion, that he does not ascribe to, that is, that the elements of the Eucharist are themselves figurative.

The vice is the physical eating of a body. However, we eat sacramentally, not physically. But that doesn’t preclude the fact that the elements are substantially (although not physical, ie, with characteristics that can be measured physically) our Lord’s Body and Blood.

The sign is bread and wine. The reality behind it is our Lord’s Body and Bood.

From Augustine’s Tractate 27, paragraph 11, on John6, v60-72 below, we can clearly see Augustine believed that indeed the Bread and Wine become our Lord’s Body and Blood.

peace
steve
I had not read these tractates before. They are interesting and I think that they confirm Augustine’s belief in a spiritual presence with the Eucharist. Here is the paragraph that quote is from:

“11. All this that the Lord spoke concerning His flesh and blood;— and in the grace of that distribution He promised us eternal life, and that** He meant those that eat His flesh and drink His blood to be understood, from the fact of their abiding in Him and He in them**; and that they understood not who believed not; and that they were offended through their understanding spiritual things in a carnal sense; and that, while these were offended and perished, the Lord was present for the consolation of the disciples who remained, for proving whom He asked, “Will ye also go away?” that the reply of their steadfastness might be known to us, for He knew that they remained with Him—let all this, then, avail us to this end, most beloved, that we eat not the flesh and blood of Christ merely in the sacrament, as many evil men do, but that we eat and drink to the participation of the Spirit, that we abide as members in the Lord’s body, to be quickened by His Spirit, and that we be not offended, even if many do now with us eat and drink the sacraments in a temporal manner, who shall in the end have eternal torments. For at present Christ’s body is as it were mixed on the threshing-floor: “But the Lord knows them that are His.” 2 Timothy 2:19 If you know what you thresh, that the substance is there hidden, that the threshing has not consumed what the winnowing has purged; certain are we, brethren, that all of us who are in the Lord’s body, and abide in Him, that He also may abide in us, have of necessity to live among evil men in this world even unto the end. I do not say among those evil men who blaspheme Christ; for there are now few found who blaspheme with the tongue, but many who do so by their life. Among those, then, we must necessarily live even unto the end.”
newadvent.org/fathers/1701027.htm

I don’t see anything that clearly depicts a physical transformation at all. I don’t see anything to show that his use of the term ‘flesh and blood of Christ’ was anything beyond a metaphor.

The tractate before this one is about John 6:41-59. It is very relevant to this topic.
newadvent.org/fathers/1701026.htm

He explains more about his belief in the spiritual significance of the Eucharist. This section offers a good summary:

“18. In a word, He now explains how that which He speaks of comes to pass, and what it is to eat His body and to drink His blood. “He that eats my flesh, and drinks my blood, dwells in me, and I in him.” This it is, therefore, for a man to eat that meat and to drink that drink, to dwell in Christ, and to have Christ dwelling in him. Consequently, he that dwells not in Christ, and in whom Christ dwells not, doubtless neither eats His flesh [spiritually] nor drinks His blood [although he may press the sacrament of the body and blood of Christ carnally and visibly with his teeth], but rather does he eat and drink the sacrament of so great a thing to his own judgment, because he, being unclean, has presumed to come to the sacraments of Christ, which no man takes worthily except he that is pure: of such it is said, “Blessed are the pure in heart, for they shall see God.” Matthew 5:8”

He seems to put the significance of the Eucharist not in a physical transformation of the elements or in eating some sacrament in a carnal way, but by dwelling in Christ. I think it is a much deeper understanding than just something physical.

The New Advent article contains some explanation of Augustine’s understanding of the elements of the Eucharist. They try to retroactively weave transubstantiation into Augustine’s belief, but state that “for even Augustine was deprived of a clear conception of Transubstantiation, so long as he was held in the bonds of Platonism.” newadvent.org/cathen/05573a.htm I am not aware of many (if any) scholars who claim that Augustine believed in the concepts that came to be part of the doctrine of transubstantiation. If a “Saint” in the church was not able to fully understand and believe in transubstantiation, I don’t know why it is necessary for a Christian today to believe in transubstantiation.
 
Hi, susan.

Just wanted to ask: would you mind answering some questions posed to you on another thread?

You made some assertions, then abruptly left the thread when follow up questions were asked.
Which thread?
I do not answer all posts if the questions are not relevant to the topic and/or if answering the questions doesn’t seem like it will be fruitful or productive.
 
I did not mean to offend. I appreciated that post and it made me wonder how many of us Catholics realize the Real Presence with such love. Sorry if I hurt your feelings…
always read the Original post my friend.🙂

Its okay, I did not think your meant to offend. I thought that you did not read my original post.
 
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