M
mercygate
Guest
For us, of course, the Eucharist is not a THING, it is the Body of Christ. Not an object.I didn’t say it is futile, just that it can be misconstrued because, as was the case with me, your people might look to the THING vs. the Savior. That’s not saying God can’t do supernatural things. Of course, I know that He can and does.
I apologize. “A priori” means “knowable without experience.” Basically, a conclusion before the fact.Please speak in English here…my Latin is weak. What are you saying exactly? I really just don’t get the a priori part. Does that mean “out right?” or “outright”?
Would I understand you correctly if I were to say that you believe “Word” is the same as “the written word” or “the words I have spoken as distinct from the person of Christ?”I am not denying anything…I am simply questioning the things that have not been confirmed in my Spirit.
I hadn’t, in my mind, ignored or dismissed the previous verses, but I looked at them in immediate relation to each other.
Example: Right after many of the disciples turned away …Jesus looks to the Twelve and asks them what they think…and the very trusting Peter, says, YOU HAVE THE WORDS of Eternal Life.
This comes directly after Jesus has just said, “The WORDS I have spoken to you are Spirit and they are Life.”
So…it seems to me they are showing each other the understanding that it is Christ who is the WORD of Life.
Maybe John 6 doesn’t make sense in the ‘Catholic’ way unless one keeps the prologue of that Gospel firmly in mind: The Word became flesh . . . For the ancient Church, for the Fathers, and all the way up to the Reformation, “my words” in John 6 meant “my flesh” as in “the bread which I shall give for the life of the world is my flesh.” The idea that the Eucharist should be understood as anything other than the Flesh of Christ was a novelty introduced in the 16th Century.
Someone – was it on this thread? – said: For professionals only. Do not try this at home without protective equipment.. . .I will have to review the chapters and pay close attention to that, but even as I consider it now, it simply points to the idea that Christ IS explaining to those who are still able to listen, that the references to flesh are not to be taken literally… so that’s how I understand that.
And again…that sends us back over to the other topic “can a normal Joe interpret Scripture.” :crying:
When a text may bear more than one interpretation – and where the interpretation is critical to faith – the unanimous consent of the Fathers cannot be dismissed as “opinions of mere men” (whose authority is no greater than my own). The deposit of faith, consistently promulgated from apostolic times, carries the presumption of authority. A personal intuition which contradicts the Apostolic faith is guaranteed to be problematic.