Protestant argument on John 1:1

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I’m a Protestant and I would never even begin to presume that the “Word” in John 1:1 is the Bible. Sadly, when many people study Scripture, they will often glean from it something that fits their particular doctrine. It’s like wearing “denominational glasses”…you will most often see what you’ve been already taught to see.

When reading a particular verse, we must keep in mind what the entire Bible says on a particular subject…it’s one part of the puzzle. You can not simply see what the picture is from one puzzle piece, you must look at all the pieces and how they fit together. This is a weak analogy because the Bible is not meant to be a puzzle, but hopefully it helps to clarify what I’m saying.

Your friend is interpreting John 1:1 out of context…it is clearly Jesus that is being spoken of…not written Scripture.

CSJ
 
Agreeing to the interpretation that the “Word” in John 1:1 refers to the Word of God ( which means the Bible according to them ).

In Rev. 19:13 it says The robe He wore was covered with blood. His name is “The Word of God”]

In verse 16 it says On His robe and on His thigh was written the name: “King of Kings and Lord of Lords.”

In Rev. 17:14 - the King of Kings and the Lord of Lords refers to the Lamb.

In 1Cor. 5: 7 - the Lamb refers to Jesus Chrisrt.

So, it is clear that the “Word” in John 1:1 refers to Jesus Christ, not the Bible ! Who then could prove thru scripture that the “Word” in John 1:1 means the Bible ?
 
John 1:14 (King James Version)

And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Context, Context, Context
 
This is classic cherry picking. If your friend would just finish the chapter he would see that it is quiet clearly and directly speaking about Jesus.

You might also point out that his interpretation is a form of idolatry.
 
John 1:14 (King James Version)

And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Context, Context, Context
Yes, you are right! If the “Word” in John 1:1 means the bible, we could help those couples who have no sebling at all to let them buy a bible in any religious bookstore and put it on a cradle and later on they will have a baby!
 
Christ is the Word of God.
That is true; the notion that the Word is Scripture falls flat because, as already stated, it first notes that “The Word is God”, and later we see in verse 14 that the Word is made flesh, which is a reference to Jesus, not Scripture.
 
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