Protestant arguments against the primacy of Peter

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Now I get it. Sorry for my density. I thought that was odd coming from you of all people. Should’ve thought about it more before I wrote. As usual with me - shoot, then aim.
 
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Totally like how everyone replying to my post missed the point.
Emojis do a wonderful job expressing sarcasm. For example:
Not Julius_Caesar:
Modern scholarship claims that there was no monarchial papacy in the first century A.D.?

Yeah… modern scholarship also agrees that the Gospels were products of the second century.
:roll_eyes:
See? 😉
 
You’re an educated person. Surely you can detect tone.
I’m a person who’s been on the internet for decades. I know that ‘tone’ is the most misinterpreted part of internet discussion. Surely you’ve detected that.
 
Yes, I can see that you’re having a personal problem that people misinterpreted your statement.
Like how you and your compatriots share the personal problem of misinterpreting statements? :man_shrugging:t6:
 
I’m pretty sure teaching is a part of doing so…
Fair point, but still only an assumption, and that of any new teaching, or one pertinent to the sufficiency of what was written, for our faith and salvation.

Some might also say that we are missing the point of figurative speech or hyperbole. Of course John did not write down every iota of any word muttered or thing done. But he may also be referring to the grandeur of His works, and the depth. John does not mean he could fill all the books if he wrote down what he saw or heard, rather what could be written and what will be seen of how just interwoven were His works with all who came into contact.

For example he spent only ten verses on the first miracle on Cana, and said it " manifested His glory", bringing the disciples to faith. Why John could have written a whole book on it probably and Holloywood could nake a movie on it “I suppose”. He did more than just change water into wine at Cana⁹
 
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but still only an assumption, and that of any new teaching, or one pertinent to the sufficiency of what was written, for our faith and salvation.
The sufficiency of what is written isn’t said in the document at all. That’s an assumption on your part.
 
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Julius_Caesar:
The sufficiency of what is written isn’t said in the document at all. That’s an assumption on your part.
And so is any insufficiency.
When the Bible doesn’t tout it’s suffiency?
 
God puts things in writing, just as we do to dogmatize something.

Name me one dogma of the church that is not in writing?
 
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He also speaks.

So nothing He said was binding until it was recorded?
lol…we quibble…of course one doesn’t record then speak, not even for a wedding.( papers are signed after the ceremony).
 
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He also speaks.

So nothing He said was binding until it was recorded?
The argument will be a circular one: that which was said… which was binding… was later recorded. The subsequent writing is what is offered as evidence of the truth of the prior speech.
🤷‍♂️
 
The argument will be a circular one: that which was said… which was binding… was later recorded. The subsequent writing is what is offered as evidence of the truth of the prior speech.
well what is the argument, for i think you described it pretty good.
 
How about all the OT Scriptures we quote which aren’t explicitly said in the NT to apply to Jesus?
Good point. Scripture is explicit enough to establish Christology from Jewish perspective. Can we cite any non written explanation of a prophecy that changes everything? Did Jesus for example cite every single fulfilled prophecy up to that point of discussion with the two on way to Emmaus ?

I wonder if like the reason for speaking in parables, so to not all things are in plain sight but hidden a bit, there to be discovered by any thirsty soul.
 
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