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AmericanJosiah
Guest
Your denomination disagrees. The Handbook of The Catholic Faith, page 136: “The Bible is the very word of God, and no greater assurance of credence is possible. The Bible was inspired by God. Exactly what does this mean? It means that God himself is the Author of the Bible. God inspired the penmen to write as He wished.” “The Bible is Authoritative because the Author, God, is authoritative.”The Catholic church is the Source of the norma normans, Josiah.
Jesus refered to Scripture - specifically by that term, 22 times: before even The Catholic Church itself claims (with zero substantiation) to have come into existence; so clearly Jesus doesn’t agree that The Catholic Church is the source of Scripture. The Israelities at Mount Sinai didn’t agree with you, either.
So it alone claims. No one denies that anyone can claim anything. But do you think that truth matters? Do you think it matters if the claim is true - whether it comes from the LDS or RCC or any other?The Teachings of the church were placed in her by Christ
Friend, I realize that you make an act of faith in laying aside accountability in the singular case of The Catholic Church exclusively, and that’s not an issue here. I will afford you EXACTLY the same respect for your act of faith in this regard as you yourself afford to the Mormon for the exact same act of faith in the exact same matter. Fair enough? I"m sure you think so. But acts of faith is not the issue here, accountability is. The Catholic Church has shown little hesitatation to declare persons “wrong” even though they embraced the same act of faith in a teacher that just accepts whatever that one says as correct.
But often times, the teachings of The Catholic Church are exclusive to it and it itself alone. Yes, OBVIOUSLY, it and it itself alone can claim that such “comes from Christ” - just as the LDS does and just as all the cults do - no one denies that one CAN do this; the question is: is it correct? You may simply CHOOSE to accept it with docility, just as our Mormon friends do - and I’m not disputing ANY such pure act of faith. I’m just discussing the epistemology of what you are defending as the most sound way to determine who among us is correct.At least we can agree on something! I think you are confusing something, though. You seem to be equating the Teaching, which is from Christ, with the fallible teachers who sometimes do a poor job of living and representing it.
YES! Actually, The Catholic Church passionately insists on accountability for ALL OTHERS. It just rejects it for itself.Catholics are required to embrace accountability.
Of course, as we all know, Jesus never said anything about The Catholic Church.Actually, there is no question for a Catholic. It is one of the foundations of our faith that we accept “with docility” what Christ has mandated.
The Catholic Church claims all this for itself.
When did The Catholic Church loose this humility and ability to learn? The willingness to be corrected?I think that you have missed the point of the scriptural directive “study to show thyself approved”. Children are taught the faith in a passive sense. Once a child grows up, he is expected to learn the reasons for his faith. This is called catechism, or the faithful echoing forth of the Apostolic Teaching.
Do you have the “reasons” why the best way to determine correctness is for self alone to declare self alone to be incapable of error, infallible, exempt from accountability?
Jesus never mentioned The Catholic Church or said it and it itself exclusively is the sole interpreter or infallible or unaccountable. But He did warn us about false teachers, antichrists and those that would lead many astray. He did praise the Ephesian Christians for regarding their teachers as accountable, for testing/norming them, and for finding them false. Yes, we do read that God taught/lead Adam and Eve - but even in a perfect world (not the fallen one we live in) were they THUS infallible students and infallible followers? Did God regard them as unaccountable for whatever they did/said? Where is this justification that The Catholic Church - specifically, particularly, perpetually and exclusively - is infallible, incapable of error, unaccountable, and whatever it and it itself exclusively says is just to be accepted with docility?
So, when the Israelites regarded the Ten Commandments as normative in morality, they were refuting those Ten Commandments? When Jesus used Scripture normatively some 50 times, He was doing what Scripture forbids? Where did the Israelities reject The Ten Commandments as normative and instead look to The Catholic Church as the infallible/unaccountable teacher - docilicly accepting what IT said rather than looking to those first Scriptuers? Forgetting the 50 times Jesus used Sola Scriptura, the 22 times He specifically, by name, refers to “the Scriptures” (400-1500 years before The Catholic Church told Him what the Scriptures are), just ignoring that, when did He reference The Catholic Church as normative instead? Where is this Scriptural support for The Catholic Church as the embraced norma normans?Scripture is normative for the church in this activity. Scripture itself refutes SS.
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