R
Rightlydivide
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I did Kay Cee. Almost all my posts have hinted at my underlying presuppositons concerning presuppositional apologetics and such.Can’t anybody answer my question? Post #46.
I did Kay Cee. Almost all my posts have hinted at my underlying presuppositons concerning presuppositional apologetics and such.Can’t anybody answer my question? Post #46.
I don’t want hints. Can’t you just answer the question instead of hinting at it?I did Kay Cee. Almost all my posts have hinted at my underlying presuppositons concerning presuppositional apologetics and such.
There are entire courses on apologetics. So summarize.I don’t want hints. Can’t you just answer the question instead of hinting at it?
It’s called “church councils”. These are where the teaching magisterium meets and decides for the good of the whole Church, such as Vatican II. We have the canon of scripture because the teaching magisterium decided on it. And we know that the Church is protected by the Holy Spirit, so what was decided as far as the canon of scripture is concerned was acceptable as the written word of God. Looking back, we undersand that God used the writings of fallible human beings to write and inspire His Word - something God has done throughout salvation history.Just for the record, I’m here to ask questions in an attempt to clear up my confusion, not to engage in a debate.
Now that I’ve made that clear—
My question is:
(Sorry about the italics, but it refuses to go out of that.)
*My emphasis is on the word “How.” *
*Knowledge of what the canon should be is not something we’re born with. Therefore, this information is communicated to us. I agree that God decides the canon, but **how ***does He communicate this information to us? What, in other words, is the “telephone” God uses to give us this information?
*The answer should be no more than just a word or two. (If you want to explain your answer in greater detail, that’s fine, but the initial answer should be short.) *
Not your official stance peary. They have God as their author and the canonization is subsequent to that is your official stance.It’s called “church councils”. These are where the teaching magisterium meets and decides for the good of the whole Church, such as Vatican II. We have the canon of scripture because the teaching magisterium decided on it. And we know that the Church is protected by the Holy Spirit, so what was decided as far as the canon of scripture is concerned was acceptable as the written word of God. Looking back, we undersand that God used the writings of fallible human beings to write and inspire His Word - something God has done throughout salvation history.
Was there any chance the right books would be excluded?The OT and NT canons were developed by God’s providence. There was never any more chance of the wrong books being in the eventual canon than Christ not being crucified.
True enough, but then too far in this direction, and you end up in Calvin’s territory where we have no free will.It speaks to his sovereignty.
The key word is “MOST” as it indicates, as you acknowledge, the discussions and disputes about what is to be considered inspired. But your statement tells only half the story, leaving out the issue of those books that would not be in the NT but were considered by some to be inspired.**Most **of the books of the eventual NT are accepted as scripture in the first 200 years, no council needed.
Neither can it be proven they didn’t have an impact; though you seem to forget that Carthage sent their decision to Rome…The councils, local in nature, cannot be proven to have had any impact on what was practically considered scripture. In other words, no one says; “well we didnt use 2nd Peter but since those folks in Carthage, we accept it”.
The councils, especially Carthage and Hippo, are part of the early Church. And, as stated previously, if “no councils needed” was the truth, what purpose did the councils serve? To confirm “most” of the books?No the councils confirmed the practice of the early church. Not the other way around. Specifically the Pauline corpus and the four gospels.
When, in your opinion, was the Jewish canon decided?God used the same method for what was considered scripture to the Jews.
Before anyone gets riled up too much about Deuterocanonicals; they will have to prove the LXX of the time of Jesus contained the books that they say they do. There are no existing copies or lists from that period to indicate what the LXX had. The earliest surviving copies, 3 centuries later contain different books! Of course my Bible has these anyway, just in a different part.
We also have a Church that developed the Doctrine of the Trinity; that is, there was a period in the Church when one could say, “historically, we haven’t taught that Trinity.”God used his church. A church that historically cannot be proven to have accepted the Marian dogmas, a Papacy, and in many quarters was rapidly opposed to the use of images (as the wonderful example in Eusebius indicates and Justyn Martyrs work) for the first few centuries.
His church that eventually developed unapostolic doctrines prior to God using a reformation to restore the New Testament purity of many of his churches.
Since you asked…
Short answer they don’t. They fudge it by saying it wasn’t the Catholic Church that exist now or some will say they were still good then but went bad later. It’s all in sola opinion for them*How *does someone who rejects the authority of the Catholic Church know what the canon should be? *How *does such a person get the correct information about what books belong in the Bible?
What do you mean “not your official stance”? They dropped out of the sky? Is that what you believe?Not your official stance peary. They have God as their author and the canonization is subsequent to that is your official stance.
I was being nice for me…geez.What do you mean “not your official stance”? They dropped out of the sky? Is that what you believe?
He was specifically speaking of the “canon of scripture,” not the scriptures themselves. And what he said about the canon is the position of the Church.Not your official stance peary. They have God as their author and the canonization is subsequent to that is your official stance.
Just to clarify your position
Hello RightlyDivideYou would agree that scriptures were committed TO the church, not the other way around?
And that the churches approval , in your case Trent, was subsequent to their inspiration?
I will try to answer your question but subjectively it seems almost like a trick question. I believe that the scriptures were writings that came from the oral tradition of the Church. Jesus commanded the oral tradition when He said go and preach the gospel. The writings were clarifications of early Church situations and misunderstandings. They also told of the life of Christ. Church first, scripture second.
As far as the OT goes, it has authority through Christ (my opinion). The governing body of the chosen people was the sanhedron (spelling?) comprised of pharises and saduccess. Each believed different portions of scripture to be valid (sound familiar?). When Christ was questioned he many times referred to the books of the prophets for the answers which the saduccess did not recognize because they only held valid the books of Moses.
Christ read from the Septuigant. This is what I consider to be valid authority. The Jews before Christ never really had an agreed cannon. Anyhow, their authority was superseeded by the Church Christ established (Matt23:1-2).
mdcpensive1
This what he saidHe was specifically speaking of the “canon of scripture,” not the scriptures themselves. And what he said about the canon is the position of the Church.
and no it is not the official stance.We have the canon of scripture because the teaching magisterium decided on it. And we know that the Church is protected by the Holy Spirit, so what was decided as far as the canon of scripture is concerned was acceptable as the written word of God. Looking back, we undersand that God used the writings of fallible human beings to write and inspire His Word - something God has done throughout salvation history.
What EXACTLY do you mean. It is not the view of your councils. I am having to give that.originally posted by rightlydivide:
Quote:
Originally Posted by VociMike:
He was specifically speaking of the “canon of scripture,” not the scriptures themselves. And what he said about the canon is the position of the Church.
This what he said:
Quote from peary:
We have the canon of scripture because the teaching magisterium decided on it. And we know that the Church is protected by the Holy Spirit, so what was decided as far as the canon of scripture is concerned was acceptable as the written word of God. Looking back, we undersand that God used the writings of fallible human beings to write and inspire His Word - something God has done throughout salvation history.
and no it is not the official stance.
**You don’t get it, do you?**
To RightlyDivide:
It is interesting that in the early Church the scriptures were read at liturgies
Nicea and Trent were mentioned in earlier posts. I wish Carthage and Hippo were mentioned also.
PS, God’s sovereignty if you may.
mdcpensive1
Nicea and Trent were mentioned in earlier posts. I wish Carthage and Hippo were mentioned also.
I asked *you *for a simple answer.There are entire courses on apologetics. So summarize.
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Presuppositional_apologetics
Yes, I know all this (see post #22), but some reject the authority of the Church. How do they answer the question?It’s called “church councils”. These are where the teaching magisterium meets and decides for the good of the whole Church, such as Vatican II. We have the canon of scripture because the teaching magisterium decided on it. And we know that the Church is protected by the Holy Spirit, so what was decided as far as the canon of scripture is concerned was acceptable as the written word of God. Looking back, we undersand that God used the writings of fallible human beings to write and inspire His Word - something God has done throughout salvation history.