G
GKC
Guest
Yep, as long as intent is, as you say, facere quod facit ecclesia. As say Anglicans, who (like me) are certainly familiar with Apostolicae Curae, and the intertwined issues of intent and form.Well, there seems to be two questions here that are being confused. IGotQuestions asks a objective question – “Is Christ Spiritually Present in Protestant Communion?” – and gets a subjective answer – “Yes, we believe in the real presence of Christ’s body and blood in the Eucharist.”
The question, of course, is not what people believe, but if what they believe (or perhaps, what they don’t believe*) is actually a reality. To answer the question in the OP, we need to first ask this questions “What is meant by Protestant”?
The reason for this is that the word ‘Protestant,’ though it was useful when first introduced, as it referred merely to those Christians who protested the Holy Roman Emperor’s enforcement of the Edict of Worms, restricting their religious freedom, it has now – especially among certain Roman Catholic apologists – become a meaningless catch all phrase that simply means ‘anyone who is Christian but which happens not to be Roman Catholic or Orthodox.’
Since this makes the question in the OP impossible to answer, I will stick to Lutheranism, and my own Church.
Traditionally, and by that I do not mean ‘in the olden days,’ a sacrament is deemed valid if it is performed by a valid valid minister (in the case of Eucharist, a properly ordained or consecrated priest or bishop), using valid matter (in the case of Eucharist, grape wine and wheat bread), with valid intent (facere quod facit ecclesia, ‘to do what the Church does’), using a valid form (a valid liturgy). Note that the intent is not that the priest or bishop must intend what the Church intends, or believe what the Church believes, just intend to do what the Church does. This is assumed valid by what he does (the valid form) and what he does it with (the valid matter).
To answer your question, then, Christ is present in any given ‘Protestant Communion’ if that is performed by a validly ordained or consecrated priest or bishop, using a valid liturgy and valid matter, with the intent to do what the Church does.
Is that to be found? I maintain that it is, but that has been discussed here several times already.
- What I mean by this is that personal beliefs – positive or negative – do not affect the objective character of a sacrament in any way, except, perhaps, the person’s receptivity of that sacrament. As Dom Gregory Dix put it, discussing the personal, and pretty radically Protestant, views of Cranmer and his people on the sacraments: “It is a commonplace of all theology, Roman or Anglican, that no public formulary can be or ought to be interpreted by the private sense attached to it by the compilers.” (Dom Gregory Dix, The Question of Anglican Orders (Dacre Press 1956): 30.)