K
kaycee
Guest
Certainly Augustine believed in a spiritual presence, just not a physical one.Pope Gelasius uses the word ‘substance,’ but he does not use it with the Thomistic meaning. Thomas was to come much later. What he means is the bread and wine look the same before and after consecration. One cannot perceive the change by means of the senses. Yet he calls the sacrament “a divine thing,” by which we are made partakers of the divine nature. How could a mere symbol do that?
As for Augustine, see post #37. Does anyone really think that Augustine did not believe in the Eucharistic real presence?
The issue was not settled until 1215!
Ratramnus employs Augustine in his 9th century defense of a Spiritual only defense!
homepage.mac.com/shanerosenthal/reformationink/srratramnus.htm
While the author of the quote above draws his own conclusions about the historical import of the debate between Ratramnus and Radbertus, it is sufficient enough for us to note simply this–the tradition of “transubstantiation” (a word not even used in the debate) in the ninth century was hardly codified and certainly not what we see later in the Fourth Lateran Council in 1215 AD. The differences between the respective positions from over a thousand years ago happened within the bounds of orthodoxy and not outside them. When one further understands that transubstantiation was made dogma in 1215 only by the Western Church, great difficulty exists in calling it a catholic doctrine on par with the Trinity or other doctrines found in the ecumenical creeds and believed by the saints for all time.
reformedcatholicism.com/?p=457