Protestant interpretation of the real presence

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I am discusing the real presence with a non Catholic, and it is amazing
That people think bible interpretation is as simple as reading verses on a subject,
Then seeing what makes the most sence to us in 2010.

Without looking at Church history…or the culture of the time…and many times not looking at original languages.

For example I said John chapter 6 where Jesus speaks of his blood and flesh as food, is ment LITERAL.

The responce I got was that if you take that literal, you must take everything else Christ said literaly about Jesus bieng bread from heaven…and about him bieng a vine…and a shepard and a door etc…

Hard to explain this to someone that dose not trust the Church in her interpretation of scripture.
 
I am discusing the real presence with a non Catholic, and it is amazing
That people think bible interpretation is as simple as reading verses on a subject,
Then seeing what makes the most sence to us in 2010.

Without looking at Church history…or the culture of the time…and many times not looking at original languages.

For example I said John chapter 6 where Jesus speaks of his blood and flesh as food, is ment LITERAL.

The responce I got was that if you take that literal, you must take everything else Christ said literaly about Jesus bieng bread from heaven…and about him bieng a vine…and a shepard and a door etc…

Hard to explain this to someone that dose not trust the Church in her interpretation of scripture.
John chapter 6 is a very difficult and controversial section of the gospel of John and has been discussed ad nauseum on these boards. It can’t be interpreted without understanding what was happening in the context of that entire chapter. Your logic of using a 2010 interpretation is absolutely correct but unfortunately that is exactly what you are doing. While I disagree with the statement made by your non-catholic friend as many things stated by Christ are to be taken quite literally, this is one that is not.

Christ would never tell a group of Jewish people to literally eat His flesh and blood when the book of Leviticus forbids it. Eating the blood of one’s god was a very paganistic practice and point of fact we see the Apostles speaking against this in the book of Acts. The Jerusalem Council dispatches its letter to the Gentiles and mentions that this practice should be refrained from. So your suggestion is that while the Apostles write to the Gentiles forbidding the consumption of blood, they then turn around and teach the Gentiles they are in fact eating the literal blood of Christ during the Lord’s Supper 🤷
 
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As a Protestant, I AGREE with The Catholic Church in it’s interpetation of the word “is” in the Eucharistic texts.

I DISAGREE with the unique, new, dogmatic interpretation of The Catholic Church of the words “change” “becomes” “converts” in the Eucharistic texts. In fact, I’d note that those words never appear in any Eucharistic text.

I agree with Real Presence. I find the unique, new Catholic dogma of Transubstantiation to be biblical baseless, theologically moot, and hermeneutically problematic.

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The responce I got was that if you take that literal, you must take everything else Christ said literaly about Jesus bieng bread from heaven…and about him bieng a vine…and a shepard and a door etc…
Some people are obstinate. Them you should generally avoid. Prayer and penance and living your faith yourself is the best remedy for them as far as I can tell.

For others, you might want to ask them why they forbid Jesus to speak figuratively some times and literally other times? Do we not use both kinds of speech ourselves? It is a peculiar criteria they impose upon Jesus.

In John 6, the very reaction of the crowd shows us He spoke literally. Since He spoke figuratively other times (like when He said He was a door, vine, etc…) the crowd in John should have just said, “Oh! He is just speaking figuratively as He sometimes does!” But no, they do not react this way. They even said “This is a hard saying.” And Jesus confirmed them in their literal understanding. Some disciples were willing to believe without understanding, and some just walked away.
 
In the same chapter, John 6:52-68, many Jewish followers ARE horrified at eating Jesus’ flesh and they walk away. Jesus does not call them back. They understood perfectly well and could not accept it. Jesus then asks the Twelve, “Will you also leave me?” and Peter says “Lord, to whom shall be go? You have the words of eternal life.”

Though the word “transubstantiation” is “new” (Aquinas, 1200s) since it was needed to describe the True Presence once some poeple challenged it, the belief in the True Presence of the Lord in the Eucharist is not. It has been taught by Jesus, through the Apostles and every early Christian writer (Justin Martyr, Didache, Iraeneus, Clement, etc) down to the present day.

Gem
 
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As a Protestant, I AGREE with The Catholic Church in it’s interpetation of the word “is” in the Eucharistic texts.

I DISAGREE with the unique, new, dogmatic interpretation of The Catholic Church of the words “change” “becomes” “converts” in the Eucharistic texts. In fact, I’d note that those words never appear in any Eucharistic text.

I agree with Real Presence. I find the unique, new Catholic dogma of Transubstantiation to be biblical baseless, theologically moot, and hermeneutically problematic.
You agree with the Real Presence, but what about the Catholic dogma do you disagree with?
 
The fact that it came from “Rome” is probably good enough for a Lutheran to object to it.
 
John chapter 6 is a very difficult and controversial section of the gospel of John and has been discussed ad nauseum on these boards. It can’t be interpreted without understanding what was happening in the context of that entire chapter. Your logic of using a 2010 interpretation is absolutely correct but unfortunately that is exactly what you are doing. While I disagree with the statement made by your non-catholic friend as many things stated by Christ are to be taken quite literally, this is one that is not.

Christ would never tell a group of Jewish people to literally eat His flesh and blood when the book of Leviticus forbids it. Eating the blood of one’s god was a very paganistic practice and point of fact we see the Apostles speaking against this in the book of Acts. The Jerusalem Council dispatches its letter to the Gentiles and mentions that this practice should be refrained from. So your suggestion is that while the Apostles write to the Gentiles forbidding the consumption of blood, they then turn around and teach the Gentiles they are in fact eating the literal blood of Christ during the Lord’s Supper 🤷
You said: Jesus would never tell the Jews literally to eat His Flesh and drink His Blood. what did Jesus say to the Jews literally?
 
Transubstantiation means it physically turns into Jesus’ body and blood. It is no longer bread and wine.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transubstantiation

Consubstantiation means Christ is present while it is still bread and wine physically.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Consubstantiation

According to the definition of transubstantiation it physically turns into Jesus but how can it still look and taste like bread and wine? This defies the definition.

How come the earliest reference is the 1100’s?
 
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Josiah:
I agree with Real Presence. I find the unique, new Catholic dogma of Transubstantiation to be biblical baseless, theologically moot, and hermeneutically problematic.
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You agree with the Real Presence, but what about the Catholic dogma do you disagree with?
I don’t think I said anything about “disagreeing.” What I said is that I find the unique, new Catholic dogma of Transubstantiation to be biblically baseless, theologically moot and hermeneutically problematic.

It is biblically baseless because it has NOTHING in Scripture that remotely supports it. It’s all about the Church’s official interpretation of the words “change” “convert” and “becomes” in the Eucharistic texts, but ignores the reality that none of those words even exist in any Eucharistic texts. The only relevant word in ANY Eucharistic text is the word “is” - and that’s developed in the doctrine of Real Presence (which the OO, EO and Lutherans agree with). BTW, it’s also baseless in Tradition.

It’s theologically moot because who in the world CARES about the bread and wine AFTER the consecration? Why this obsession over THAT when CHRIST is present! It seems to me, Transubstantition diverts attention from the point to an entirely moot issue. When my Lutheran pastor places the Host on my tongue, his exact words are, “Josiah - this IS the Body of Christ” (Real Presence). There’s no NEED - theologically - to add, “the elements of bread and wine have undergone an alchemic transubstantiation leaving behind Aristotelian accidents that make it APPEAR like there is bread and wine, but the bread and wine are actually not “there” in the full sense, but are accidents merely having the appearances and properties of such without being such.” Theologically, all this obsession over the bread and wine just detracts from the Real Presence of Christ and has no theological signifcance whatsoever.

It is** hermeneutically problematic** because the RCC in the 16th century did EXACTLY the same thing as Zwingli did. It rejected a literal reading and interpretation of the Eucharistic texts, insisting instead that select words here and there are less-than-literal (with ZERO textual support for this split “half is/half isn’t” handling). Catholics RIGHTLY repudiate Zwingli because his entirely arbitrary acceptance of only SOME of the words in the Eucharistic texts places the others in jeoprody. I agree. Of course, those same Catholics don’t seem to “see” that the 16th Century Transubstantiation interpretation does exactly the same thing - you guys just don’t agree on which words are arbitrarily literal and which aren’t. Some hermeneutic. The reality is, the words are what they are. If we take it literally, then we should take them literally. And we need to realize that jesus speaks of wine AFTER the consecration, Paul speaks of bread and wine FAR MORE OFTEN after the Consecration than before - with no textual distinction WHATSOEVR. If bread = bread, then bread = bread. If Body = body, then body = body. It’s dangerous - the Catholic argues - to say “well, it means it here but not here.” And I agree. Lutherans simply see the issue of “bread” and “wine” AFTER the consecration as entirely moot. Catholics (since 1551) go on and on and on and on about that - applying the alchemy’s transubstantiation and Aristotle’s long ago rejected theory of “accidents.” And of course, a lot of pure speculation over the meaning of the words “becomes” “converts” “changes” in the texts without even noticing… those words aren’t there. ADDING words not there, dismissing words that ARE there, an arbitrary split “half literal, half not” interpretation (just like Zwingli did), it’s all problematic. To ME, I have exactly the same problem with the new, unique Catholic handling of the texts as The Catholic Church does with Zwingli’s.

But again, I didn’t say it was WRONG. If it were just what the Catholic Scholastics seem to have intended it to be, just ONE possible speculation about some questions, I wouldn’t have any problems. I would not “buy it” but hey - I have a theory about just about everything, and I welcome other people to do that, too. But it was declared DOGMA in 1551.

Thank you.

Pax
  • Josiah
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Does this count as Tradition?

from the First Apology of St. Justin Martyr (Cap. 66-67: PG 6, 427-431)

We do not consume the eucharistic bread and wine as if it were ordinary food and drink, for we have been taught that as Jesus Christ our Savior became a man of flesh and blood by the power of the Word of God, so also the food that our flesh and blood assimilates for its nourishment becomes the flesh and blood of the incarnate Jesus by the power of his own words contained in the prayer of thanksgiving.

The apostles, in their recollections, which are called gospels, handed down to us what Jesus commanded them to do. They tell us that he took bread, gave thanks and said: Do this in memory of me. This is my body. In the same way he took the cup, he gave thanks and said: This is my blood. The Lord gave this command to them alone. Ever since then we have constantly reminded one another of these things. The rich among us help the poor and we are always united. For all that we receive we praise the Creator of the universe through his Son Jesus Christ and through the Holy Spirit.
 
I don’t think I said anything about “disagreeing.” What I said is that I find the unique, new Catholic dogma of Transubstantiation to be biblically baseless, theologically moot and hermeneutically problematic.

It is biblically baseless because it has NOTHING in Scripture that remotely supports it. It’s all about the Church’s official interpretation of the words “change” “convert” and “becomes” in the Eucharistic texts, but ignores the reality that none of those words even exist in any Eucharistic texts. The only relevant word in ANY Eucharistic text is the word “is” - and that’s developed in the doctrine of Real Presence (which the OO, EO and Lutherans agree with). BTW, it’s also baseless in Tradition.

It’s theologically moot because who in the world CARES about the bread and wine AFTER the consecration? Why this obsession over THAT when CHRIST is present! It seems to me, Transubstantition diverts attention from the point to an entirely moot issue. When my Lutheran pastor places the Host on my tongue, his exact words are, “Josiah - this IS the Body of Christ” (Real Presence). There’s no NEED - theologically - to add, “the elements of bread and wine have undergone an alchemic transubstantiation leaving behind Aristotelian accidents that make it APPEAR like there is bread and wine, but the bread and wine are actually not “there” in the full sense, but are accidents merely having the appearances and properties of such without being such.” Theologically, all this obsession over the bread and wine just detracts from the Real Presence of Christ and has no theological signifcance whatsoever.

It is** hermeneutically problematic** because the RCC in the 16th century did EXACTLY the same thing as Zwingli did. It rejected a literal reading and interpretation of the Eucharistic texts, insisting instead that select words here and there are less-than-literal (with ZERO textual support for this split “half is/half isn’t” handling). Catholics RIGHTLY repudiate Zwingli because his entirely arbitrary acceptance of only SOME of the words in the Eucharistic texts places the others in jeoprody. I agree. Of course, those same Catholics don’t seem to “see” that the 16th Century Transubstantiation interpretation does exactly the same thing - you guys just don’t agree on which words are arbitrarily literal and which aren’t. Some hermeneutic. The reality is, the words are what they are. If we take it literally, then we should take them literally. And we need to realize that jesus speaks of wine AFTER the consecration, Paul speaks of bread and wine FAR MORE OFTEN after the Consecration than before - with no textual distinction WHATSOEVR. If bread = bread, then bread = bread. If Body = body, then body = body. It’s dangerous - the Catholic argues - to say “well, it means it here but not here.” And I agree. Lutherans simply see the issue of “bread” and “wine” AFTER the consecration as entirely moot. Catholics (since 1551) go on and on and on and on about that - applying the alchemy’s transubstantiation and Aristotle’s long ago rejected theory of “accidents.” And of course, a lot of pure speculation over the meaning of the words “becomes” “converts” “changes” in the texts without even noticing… those words aren’t there. ADDING words not there, dismissing words that ARE there, an arbitrary split “half literal, half not” interpretation (just like Zwingli did), it’s all problematic. To ME, I have exactly the same problem with the new, unique Catholic handling of the texts as The Catholic Church does with Zwingli’s.

But again, I didn’t say it was WRONG. If it were just what the Catholic Scholastics seem to have intended it to be, just ONE possible speculation about some questions, I wouldn’t have any problems. I would not “buy it” but hey - I have a theory about just about everything, and I welcome other people to do that, too. But it was declared DOGMA in 1551.

Thank you.

Pax
  • Josiah
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yeh. you dont have the True Eucharist. you can only have this in the CC. you have no valid priesthood. you have no valid Holy Orders. so, no Transubstantiation for you. it doesnt matter if you believe or not. Eucharist, only in the CC.
the Pope alredy said that to the Lutherans. are you guys hard of hearing?
 
I don’t think I said anything about “disagreeing.” What I said is that I find the unique, new Catholic dogma of Transubstantiation to be biblically baseless, theologically moot and hermeneutically problematic.

It is biblically baseless because it has NOTHING in Scripture that remotely supports it. It’s all about the Church’s official interpretation of the words “change” “convert” and “becomes” in the Eucharistic texts, but ignores the reality that none of those words even exist in any Eucharistic texts. The only relevant word in ANY Eucharistic text is the word “is” - and that’s developed in the doctrine of Real Presence (which the OO, EO and Lutherans agree with). BTW, it’s also baseless in Tradition.
Splitting hairs. What does “is” mean? “Contains?” “Represents?” The Catholic dogma says first and foremost “IS” means “IS.” In order for “is” to be “is” something “was” has to become “was.” Jesus made no provisions that there “was” bread remaining, but that it “is” his Body.
It’s theologically moot because who in the world CARES about the bread and wine AFTER the consecration? Why this obsession over THAT when CHRIST is present! It seems to me, Transubstantition diverts attention from the point to an entirely moot issue. When my Lutheran pastor places the Host on my tongue, his exact words are, “Josiah - this IS the Body of Christ” (Real Presence). There’s no NEED - theologically - to add, “the elements of bread and wine have undergone an alchemic transubstantiation leaving behind Aristotelian accidents that make it APPEAR like there is bread and wine, but the bread and wine are actually not “there” in the full sense, but are accidents merely having the appearances and properties of such without being such.” Theologically, all this obsession over the bread and wine just detracts from the Real Presence of Christ and has no theological signifcance whatsoever.
Find out why it was proclaimed and you will answer that question
It is** hermeneutically problematic** because the RCC in the 16th century did EXACTLY the same thing as Zwingli did. It rejected a literal reading and interpretation of the Eucharistic texts, insisting instead that select words here and there are less-than-literal (with ZERO textual support for this split “half is/half isn’t” handling). Catholics RIGHTLY repudiate Zwingli because his entirely arbitrary acceptance of only SOME of the words in the Eucharistic texts places the others in jeoprody. I agree. Of course, those same Catholics don’t seem to “see” that the 16th Century Transubstantiation interpretation does exactly the same thing - you guys just don’t agree on which words are arbitrarily literal and which aren’t. Some hermeneutic. The reality is, the words are what they are. If we take it literally, then we should take them literally. And we need to realize that jesus speaks of wine AFTER the consecration, Paul speaks of bread and wine FAR MORE OFTEN after the Consecration than before - with no textual distinction WHATSOEVR. If bread = bread, then bread = bread. If Body = body, then body = body. It’s dangerous - the Catholic argues - to say “well, it means it here but not here.” And I agree. Lutherans simply see the issue of “bread” and “wine” AFTER the consecration as entirely moot. Catholics (since 1551) go on and on and on and on about that - applying the alchemy’s transubstantiation and Aristotle’s long ago rejected theory of “accidents.” And of course, a lot of pure speculation over the meaning of the words “becomes” “converts” “changes” in the texts without even noticing… those words aren’t there. ADDING words not there, dismissing words that ARE there, an arbitrary split “half literal, half not” interpretation (just like Zwingli did), it’s all problematic. To ME, I have exactly the same problem with the new, unique Catholic handling of the texts as The Catholic Church does with Zwingli’s.
But again, I didn’t say it was WRONG. If it were just what the Catholic Scholastics seem to have intended it to be, just ONE possible speculation about some questions, I wouldn’t have any problems. I would not “buy it” but hey - I have a theory about just about everything, and I welcome other people to do that, too. But it was declared DOGMA in 1551.
Again, there would be no dogma had there been no controversy. Someone started teaching that it was symbolic, or that Jesus was only present if you believed it. The Church had to clarify what happens because heretics started to deny it. Lutherans did not have to specifically go that far, because they did not care if a splinter group left and started teaching heresy about the Real Presence. It was no issue to say “Don’t let the door hit you on the way out.”
 
Christ would never tell a group of Jewish people to literally eat His flesh and blood when the book of Leviticus forbids it.
Reading in context, I think otherwise. The life, i.e. the blood, of creatures is reserved to God in older covenants (cf. Gn 9, Lv 17, Dt 12). In the new covenant, God gives his own blood to his people as a means of giving his life to them (cf. Jn 6). The two are actually consistent with one other. (See also.)
The Jerusalem Council dispatches its letter to the Gentiles and mentions that this practice should be refrained from.
Not because the new covenant forbids the consumption of animal blood (cf. Mt 15, Rm 14, etc.), but as a local discipline to prevent unnecessary obstacles to Jewish conversion.
Though the word “transubstantiation” is “new” (Aquinas, 1200s) since it was needed to describe the True Presence once some poeple challenged it, the belief in the True Presence of the Lord in the Eucharist is not. It has been taught by Jesus, through the Apostles and every early Christian writer (Justin Martyr, Didache, Iraeneus, Clement, etc) down to the present day.
The term “transubstantiation,” if I am not mistaken, was first used by Stephen of Bruge in the 1100s. It definitely predates Thomas Aquinas.

I agree that the purpose of the term’s use was a new articulation of ancient Christian faith regarding the Eucharist.
 
Transubstantiation means it physically turns into Jesus’ body and blood. It is no longer bread and wine.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transubstantiation

Consubstantiation means Christ is present while it is still bread and wine physically.

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Consubstantiation

According to the definition of transubstantiation it physically turns into Jesus but how can it still look and taste like bread and wine? This defies the definition.

How come the earliest reference is the 1100’s?

Try reading the Catechism of the Catholic Church the ECFs & other Catholic sources.
You would no more like me telling you that you believe something that you don’t & then
quoting some secular enemy of yours so why do it to us.

Wikipedia as a source is a joke. 😃 esp since I or you can change it at will.
 
Why not just say, “The body and blood of Christ.” Period (no metaphysical explanation needed). 🤷

Sacraments are mysteries, and as such, defy explanation. Why try to explain the mysterious?
 
Why not just say, “The body and blood of Christ.” Period (no metaphysical explanation needed). 🤷

Sacraments are mysteries, and as such, defy explanation. Why try to explain the mysterious?
Transubstantiation is not an “explanation.” It simply says that what once was bread and wine is now ontologically the Body and Blood. It remains a tremendous mystery. See? We agree! :o
 
Why not just say, “The body and blood of Christ.” Period (no metaphysical explanation needed). 🤷

Sacraments are mysteries, and as such, defy explanation. Why try to explain the mysterious?
Because there is always someone to whom that answer is not enough. It is not a problem until that person starts pulling others away from the faith
 
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As a Protestant, I AGREE with The Catholic Church in it’s interpetation of the word “is” in the Eucharistic texts.

I DISAGREE with the unique, new, dogmatic interpretation of The Catholic Church of the words “change” “becomes” “converts” in the Eucharistic texts. In fact, I’d note that those words never appear in any Eucharistic text.

I agree with Real Presence. I find the unique, new Catholic dogma of Transubstantiation to be biblical baseless, theologically moot, and hermeneutically problematic.

.
 
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I don’t think I said anything about “disagreeing.” What I said is that I find the unique, new Catholic dogma of Transubstantiation to be biblically baseless, theologically moot and hermeneutically problematic.
It is** biblically baseless**
because it has NOTHING in Scripture that remotely supports it. It’s all about the Church’s official interpretation of the words “change” “convert” and “becomes” in the Eucharistic texts, but ignores the reality that none of those words even exist in any Eucharistic texts. The only relevant word in ANY Eucharistic text is the word “is” - and that’s developed in the doctrine of Real Presence (which the OO, EO and Lutherans agree with). BTW, it’s also baseless in Tradition.
Splitting hairs. What does “is” mean? “Contains?” “Represents?” The Catholic dogma says first and foremost “IS” means “IS.” In order for “is” to be “is” something “was” has to become “was.” Jesus made no provisions that there “was” bread remaining, but that it “is” his Body.

It’s theologically moot because who in the world CARES about the bread and wine AFTER the consecration? Why this obsession over THAT when CHRIST is present! It seems to me, Transubstantition diverts attention from the point to an entirely moot issue. When my Lutheran pastor places the Host on my tongue, his exact words are, “Josiah - this IS the Body of Christ” (Real Presence). There’s no NEED - theologically - to add, “the elements of bread and wine have undergone an alchemic transubstantiation leaving behind Aristotelian accidents that make it APPEAR like there is bread and wine, but the bread and wine are actually not “there” in the full sense, but are accidents merely having the appearances and properties of such without being such.” Theologically, all this obsession over the bread and wine just detracts from the Real Presence of Christ and has no theological signifcance whatsoever.

.

Find out why it was proclaimed and you will answer that question

Perhaps you don’t know, either. It seems to have zero relevance to anything.
It is** hermeneutically problematic**
because the RCC in the 16th century did EXACTLY the same thing as Zwingli did. It rejected a literal reading and interpretation of the Eucharistic texts, insisting instead that select words here and there are less-than-literal (with ZERO textual support for this split “half is/half isn’t” handling). Catholics RIGHTLY repudiate Zwingli because his entirely arbitrary acceptance of only SOME of the words in the Eucharistic texts places the others in jeoprody. I agree. Of course, those same Catholics don’t seem to “see” that the 16th Century Transubstantiation interpretation does exactly the same thing - you guys just don’t agree on which words are arbitrarily literal and which aren’t. Some hermeneutic. The reality is, the words are what they are. If we take it literally, then we should take them literally. And we need to realize that jesus speaks of wine AFTER the consecration, Paul speaks of bread and wine FAR MORE OFTEN after the Consecration than before - with no textual distinction WHATSOEVR. If bread = bread, then bread = bread. If Body = body, then body = body. It’s dangerous - the Catholic argues - to say “well, it means it here but not here.” And I agree. Lutherans simply see the issue of “bread” and “wine” AFTER the consecration as entirely moot. Catholics (since 1551) go on and on and on and on about that - applying the alchemy’s transubstantiation and Aristotle’s long ago rejected theory of “accidents.” And of course, a lot of pure speculation over the meaning of the words “becomes” “converts” “changes” in the texts without even noticing… those words aren’t there. ADDING words not there, dismissing words that ARE there, an arbitrary split “half literal, half not” interpretation (just like Zwingli did), it’s all problematic. To ME, I have exactly the same problem with the new, unique Catholic handling of the texts as The Catholic Church does with Zwingli’s.

.

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Someone started teaching that it was symbolic

IF that’s correct, then all The Catholic Church needed to do is affirm Real Presence. EXACTLY as the church had done for 1200 years, and exactly as the Oriental Orthodox and Eastern Orthodox and Lutheran churches STILL do.

Joining Zwinglian Protestants in this “half is/ half really isn’t” hermeneutic means The Catholic Church is now “guilty” of the very thing for which it rebukes Zwingian Protestants - for not taking the Eucharistic texts literally. And by placing all the emphasis on the “bread” and “wine” AFTER the consecration, it is taking the attention OFF Christ and His Real Presence. So, actually, IF you are correct and some were questioning Real Presence, the appropriate thing would have been to affirm Real Presence, not invent a whole, new, dogma - with ZERO affirmation in Scripture or Tradition - that actually undermines that point, is moot to the controversy, and actually undermines His presence by placing all the emphasis on the “accidents” of bread and wine.

And you seem to forget that Transubstantiation was declared dogma in 1551, at Trent, which was in direct reaction to Luther and Lutherans. They did NOT question Real Presence. It’s Transubstantiation that we don’t regard as dogma. We do regard Real Presence as such.

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