I already did: “These are my words that I spoke to you while I was still with you, that everything written about me in the law of Moses and in the prophets and psalms must be fulfilled.”
Ginger
So…nothing in the New Testament is Scripture???
Let’s just call that an unanswered question for now.
You see, Ginger, you are taking the typical Protestant easy road: Nah, we won’t accept the Catholic canon, even though it predates ours by 1200 years, except for the New Testament, of course, which we will not mention… Oh, and by the way, we won’t bother to give the Catholics credit for our New Testament either because…well, just because.
Ginger2;5703664:
I do not believe in Sola Scriptura as Catholics define it.
So, enlighten us. How do you define it?
this is a myth that has been dispalled several times, yet Catholics continue to repeat it to justify themselves. It is better to let God justify you - at least that is what the Bible says.
Ginger
How do you “dispall” a myth? (Methinks you have discovered a new word, although, I’m just a dumb guy from Louisiana, not some Aramaic scholar…) Anyway, so now the argument shifts to justification? Someone may be avoiding the subject here…
Usually the first example (in what is always a long list) to support the false claim Jesus and the Apostles quoted Apocrypha is:
Matthew 2:16 “Then Herod, …slew all the children that were in Bethlehem, …”
Catholics claim this was prophesied in:
Wisdom 11:7. For instead of a fountain of an ever running river, thou gavest human blood to the unjust.
However, the next verse in Matthew says it fulfills the prophesy spoken by Jeremiah:
Matthew 2:17 Then was fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremy the prophet, saying,
Ginger
I didn’t ask you to “dispall” the FIRST (in your view) example of the New Testament referencing the Deuterocanonicals, I asked you to “dispall” all 300 examples. Apparently, another conveniently unanswered question…
Are you afraid of the answer? Can you not justify your own beliefs if in fact the New Testament repeatedly references Scripture which you do not claim to be Scripture?
Again you adhere to a myth.
Then it should be child’s play for a learned scholar such as yourself to prove me wrong.
There is no mention among any Church Father concerning this council.
How convenient you now choose to adhere to the writings of the Church Fathers, since you attempt to use them as a source. So I guess you are now ok with intercessory prayers, the Sacrament of Reconciliation, the Real Presence in the Eucharist, infant Baptism, Marian devotion, the Immaculate Conception, the Assumption, etc. Welcome to the Catholic Church!
(Hey, since you now adhere to the writings of the Early Church Fathers and the Apocrypha, tell me what you think of this one: The Account of St. John the Theologian of the Falling Asleep of the Holy Mother of God which was written in about 400 A.D. It tells about the Assumption of the Blessed Virgin.)
Now, while Catholics can make all the unfounded claims the wish, the fact is Christians were not at that school and don’t know anything more about it than what they gain from Jewish sources.
Ginger
I hate to break it to you, and I know I’m really going to hurt your feelings and I apologize in advance, but what you meant to say is that there were no “Catholics” at that school. You see Ginger, there weren’t ANY Christians other than Catholics in 90 AD. In fact, there weren’t ANY Christians other than Catholics until the 1500’s. It’s ok, take a deep breath…
Now, let me tally things up here. It seems you have conveniently left the following questions unanswered from my previous post:
Tell me, exactly which Protestant council decided the canon of Scripture? And as to your statement above, can you give me the verse where Jesus listed the books of Scripture?
You believe in Sola Scriptura, so let me ask: Did God simply abandon all those Christians who lived from the time of Jesus’ death to the reformation?
And hey, while we’re at it, why did the KJV include those 7 books that the Catholic Church “added”?
So you quote an apocryphal book, written way after the Septuagint, to prove your point that the Deuteros are not canononical?
We know the Deuteros were in the Septuagint, but in about 90 A.D. they are no longer included by some, but not all, Jews. So if they weren’t removed at Jamnia, what happened to them?
Are you refering to the Council of Flavius Josephus which determined the canon of Scripture?
So if many people consider me a prophet, then I am one?
And now you quote a Jewish apologist to prove your point?
And you do realize, don’t you, that Josephus’s second work, the “Jewish Antiquities” books I-XI are based on the text of the Septuagint? And of course you also realize, don’t you that the Septuagint contained the Deuteros?
Ginger, I haven’t seen you in a while on the forums, maybe because I just missed you, or maybe because I’ve been away. In either case, it’s the same old song and dance. You spout your position, you recognize no other sources unless of course they agree with you, and frankly, you completely ignore any question which makes you uncomfortable.
Uncomfortable in the sense that doctrine does not agree with the infallible interpretation of the Church of Ginger. Honestly, have you settled all of these issues in your head? In your heart? Somehow, I think not. I sincerely hope you keep looking, and that you indeed open your heart.