Right, that was what I felt was your best point…
But this is an unwarranted leap. Look, Jesus was dying on the Cross. Is it possible they didn’t understand what He said? We’re talking about one syllable here (twice). But the sacred authors infallibly tell us Jesus was quoting the Psalm and said, “My God, My God…” - not Elijah. So the people clearly misunderstood the whole quote! Never mind one word. Or maybe there’s a different reason, which we’ll see momentarily. But if they didn’t even realize that Jesus was quoting the Psalm, why would you assume that they understood “Eloi” correctly? That doesn’t make sense. But here are a couple more possible solutions from the Fathers, from
Fr. Haydock’s commentary:
Ver. 47.
This man calleth for Elias. St. Jerome thinks these might be some of the Roman soldiers, who understood not Syriac, but who had heard of the prophet Elias. (Witham) — But if we understand it of the Jews, who could not possibly be ignorant of this word, we must suppose it was merely a stratagem of theirs, who wishing still to shew the weakness of our Redeemer, said that he called Elias to his aid. (St. Jerome) — The soldiers thinking that he called for Elias, wished to hinder any one from offering vinegar, lest it should hasten his death, and prevent Elias from coming to assist him; which, from the darkness and other signs, they might think probable. (St. Augustine)
The second suggestion, that the Jews were essentially mocking Christ, is consistent with the visions of Blessed Sr. Emmerich, who said that it was a Pharisee who said, “Behold, he calleth Elias”. (And she said that Jesus said, “Eloi, Eloi”, btw.) This seems to make the most sense, given that:
"In the same way the chief priests, the teachers of the law and the elders mocked him. “He saved others,” they said, “but he can’t save himself! He’s the King of Israel! Let him come down now from the cross, and we will believe in him. He trusts in God. Let God rescue him now if he wants him, for he said, ‘I am the Son of God.’” (Matthew 27:41-43)
Look! He’s calling for Elijah’s help! You get the point. And remember, they added, “Let’s see if Elijah comes to save him.” So if they didn’t really misunderstand our Lord but were just mocking Him, then once again it makes sense that a scribe didn’t get it, and thought that it should read, “Eli, Eli”, but he was in error.
That’s the same argument I made to you, except in reverse. And they’re both good arguments. Why go from Greek to Hebrew to Aramaic and back to Greek? Isn’t the obvious solution that Matthew did not write “Eli”, and that it was a scribal error? Could that be the reason the NIV translators went with the mss that have “Eloi”?
No, I know they’re “sister” languages…
But it’s not
my suggestion, everything I’ve seen says that it is Aramaic, with no mention of any disagreement on that point.
I think that’s just a difference in Aramaic dialects - not Hebrew. Look, I know we agree that whatever possible solution we go with, it must uphold the truthfulness of Scripture. And so to go back to your original point, when the NT says that something is in “Hebrew”, it could be that it’s because it is for a Gentile audience, telling them not that it’s the Hebrew language, but that it’s the language that the Hebrews speak, Aramaic. If you do a search of the Bible, you’ll see that Jews were speaking Aramaic long before the time of Christ - by the time of Isaiah (c.700BC). But you’ll notice that they distinguish between Aramaic and Hebrew, but this is for a Hebrew audience.
Anyhow, this really is not an important issue, but if you can find any scholars who say that the Jews spoke Hebrew at the time of Christ, other than when reading Scripture and priestly rituals, etc., I would be very interested because I don’t think I’ve ever heard that before. Until then, I’ll go with these simple and truthful solutions. God bless.