A
ASD
Guest
I think there is a pretty broad consensus that ecumenism had a huge influence on the debates and results of VII. See, e.g., Michael Davies and M. J. Wilde at opposite ends of the spectrum. One result was the changes to the Holy Sacrifice of the Mass that apparently were intended, in large part, to make it less objectionable to Protestants.
On one level, this makes sense. In the U.S.A., e.g., as Catholics moved out of their old ethnic neighborhoods and entered the American mainstream after WWII, maybe their bishops wanted better relations with their Protestant neighbors. In post-war Europe, on the other hand, a Christianity that had not been able to prevent the disasters of the 20th century wanted to fall back and regroup.
In other ways it’s puzzling. E.g., it’s not clear exactly what the bishops expected. Did they think that changing the Mass would attract Protestants back to the Church? Sometimes people suggest that it has had that effect in come cases, that Protestants have been able to convert who would not have done so if NO/OF were not available.
Similarly, I don’t know whether the bishops expected some kind of reciprocal changes by Protestants. I certainly don’t know of any.
So, several related questions with a theme, viz, Has it succeeded on its own terms?
On one level, this makes sense. In the U.S.A., e.g., as Catholics moved out of their old ethnic neighborhoods and entered the American mainstream after WWII, maybe their bishops wanted better relations with their Protestant neighbors. In post-war Europe, on the other hand, a Christianity that had not been able to prevent the disasters of the 20th century wanted to fall back and regroup.
In other ways it’s puzzling. E.g., it’s not clear exactly what the bishops expected. Did they think that changing the Mass would attract Protestants back to the Church? Sometimes people suggest that it has had that effect in come cases, that Protestants have been able to convert who would not have done so if NO/OF were not available.
Similarly, I don’t know whether the bishops expected some kind of reciprocal changes by Protestants. I certainly don’t know of any.
So, several related questions with a theme, viz, Has it succeeded on its own terms?
- Is it true that bishops thought changing Mass would attract Protestants?
- If so, does anyone know some reliable facts and figures about Protestant conversions to Catholicism in years after the Mass was changed.
- Did the bishops expect the Protestants in the ecumenical movement to respond with similar changes?
- If Protestants were expected to reciprocate, have they? Have there been changes comparable to, e.g., changes in Mass or the declaration on religious liberty?