Protestant that agree...

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GOD uses His priests as His instruments of reconciliation. The New Covenant priesthood is prefigured or ‘typed’ in many places in the Old Testament. Here are several examples from the Old Testament of reconciliation and atonement being performed by a priest:

Leviticus 4:20, “…Thus the priest shall make atonement for them, and they will be forgiven.”

Leviticus 4:26, “Thus the priest shall make atonement for the prince’s sin, and it will be forgiven.”

Leviticus 4:32, “Thus the priest shall make atonement for him, and he will be forgiven.”

Leviticus 4:35, “Thus the priest shall make atonement for the man’s sin, and it will be forgiven.”

Leviticus 5:5-6, “…then whoever is guilty in any of these cases shall confess the sin he has incurred, and as his sin offering for his sin he has committed he shall bring to the Lord a female animal from the flock, a ewe lamb or a she-goat. The priest shall then make atonement for his sin.”
See also Leviticus 5:10,13,16,18, 12:8, 14:18-20,31, 15:15,30, 19:22.

Leviticus 6:7, “And the priest shall make an atonement for him before the Lord; and it shall be forgiven him for any thing of all that he has done in trespassing therein.”

Leviticus 7:7, “Because the sin offering and the guilt offering are alike, both having the same ritual, the guilt offering likewise belongs to the priest who makes atonement with it.”

Leviticus 16:32, “This atonement is to be made by the priest who has been anointed and ordained to the priesthood in succession to his father.”

Leviticus 19:20-22, “If a man lies carnally with a woman . . . they shall not be put to death . . . but he shall bring a guilt offering for himself to the Lord, to the door of the tent of meeting, a ram for a guilt offering. And the priest shall make atonement for him . . . before the Lord for his sin which he has committed, and the sin which he has committed shall be forgiven him.”

Numbers 6:11, “The priest shall offer up the one as a sin offering and the other as a holocaust, thus making atonement for him for the sin he has committed by reason of the dead person.”

Numbers 15:25, “And the priest shall make an atonement for all the congregation of the children of Israel, and it shall be forgiven them…”

Numbers 15:28, “And the priest shall make atonement before the Lord for him who sinned inadvertently; when atonement has been made for him, he will be forgiven.”
Actually, each of those verses refers to the Levitical priesthood, which Christ did away with.

Now it is Christ and Christ alone who provides the atonement.
 
And you don’t think that I would come back if somebody needed me?
About 200 people.
They sure have. And if it’s something that they need me to come to be with them, then I call my wife. That is, after all, why God gave me a partner. Your priests don’t have that.
11:00pm.

A grandparent dies.

One man is in between his wife’s legs in the grasp of passion in his bedroom.

The other is fast asleep in a Church.

The phone call comes in that a member of The Flock needs to be spiritually guided.

Who’s the better candidate to consol that grieving grandchild?

The man who just heaved his sweaty body off of a woman in the midst of sexual gratification?

Or the man who’s only bride is The Church?

👍
 
Actually, each of those verses refers to the Levitical priesthood, which Christ did away with.

Now it is Christ and Christ alone who provides the atonement.
Where in The Bible does it state that Christ did away with the Levitical Priesthood?
 
Oh, and by the way?

If it was done away with,

why would Jesus send a man he healed to do what Moses prescribed if it wasn’t in effect anymore?

Wouldn’t that make Christ…a false teacher?

🤷
 
11:00pm.

A grandparent dies.

One man is in between his wife’s legs in the grasp of passion in his bedroom.

The other is fast asleep in a Church.

The phone call comes in that a member of The Flock needs to be spiritually guided.

Who’s the better candidate to consol that grieving grandchild?

The man who just heaved his sweaty body off of a woman in the midst of sexual gratification?

Or the man who’s only bride is The Church?

👍
I fail to see how a man who enjoys the God-given gift of sex with his wife is any less qualified to console a grieving family.

((And, by the way, there may be women and children reading this so please try to keep it clean.))
 
Oh, and by the way?

If it was done away with,

why would Jesus send a man he healed to do what Moses prescribed if it wasn’t in effect anymore?

Wouldn’t that make Christ…a false teacher?

🤷
No. It would make you a terrible Bible student.
 
Where in The Bible does it state that Christ did away with the Levitical Priesthood?
In the Letter to the Hebrews. We now have the Apostolic priesthood, after the order of Melchizedek. 😉

Our Christian priests not only don’t have to be members of the Tribe of Levi, they don’t even have to have any Jewish ancestry whatsoever. 👍

We are under the New Covenant, now. 🙂
 
I fail to see how a man who enjoys the God-given gift of sex with his wife is any less qualified to console a grieving family.

((And, by the way, there may be women and children reading this so please try to keep it clean.))
Well, we’re here to be truthful right?

It’s not outside the realm of possibilities that a man would be having sexual intercourse with a woman to be called to “minister” to a member of his flock…excuse me for being sexist…allow me to include a woman pastor who is “enjoying” sexual relations with her husband.

And this is a site for adults. And for truth. There is nothing vulgar about what I’m saying.

Now, I’m sure it might turn the stomach of some to think that just minutes before he/she is attending to the spiritual needs of a grieving member of his/her church, he/she was engaged in carnal pleasures, but let’s be real…it happens.

The point is, who’s in a better frame of mind to pastor this sheep?

The one who had carnal relations minutes before he is called to (another) duty?

Or the man dedicated solely to God?

Man cannot serve God and mammon at the same time.

(by the way, Jesus never had a wife besides The Church)
 
Virtually the entire book of Hebrews, specifically chapter 8.
I don’t see anywhere that states that any Priesthood was abolished as they are administerers of The Law and Jesus didn’t come to abolish The Law but to fulfill it and it would be in effect until His returrn.

Besides, if that were true, Paul wouldn’t be “preaching” to these people. This makes him a Priest.

👍

(If I’m wrong, please, show me specifically in Romans 8).
 
In the Letter to the Hebrews. We now have the Apostolic priesthood, after the order of Melchizedek. 😉

Our Christian priests not only don’t have to be members of the Tribe of Levi, they don’t even have to have any Jewish ancestry whatsoever. 👍

We are under the New Covenant, now. 🙂
I’m all for the Priesthood being in effect brother.

The origin of this exchange is that Christ sent a man to perform not the New Covenant’s requisites for what Moses prescribed, but what “Moses prescribed” which can only be found in Leviticus.

🙂

Of course I’m going to take it to the Christian Priesthood, but I’m first establishing the undeniable foundation of The Church (which are The Apostles).

Baby steps.

I can’t dump it all on him yet.

I have to drop bread crumbs to lead him out of the wilderness my brother!

😃

Now, sit back and enjoy the demonstration of how to prove that The Catholic Church has the only Christian Priesthood today (I’m sure you know this, but let me do my dance! LOL)
 
I don’t see anywhere that states that any Priesthood was abolished as they are administerers of The Law and Jesus didn’t come to abolish The Law but to fulfill it and it would be in effect until His returrn.
Yes, but priests are no longer required to be of the tribe of Levi. Obviously, we still have priests in the New Covenant, though.
Besides, if that were true, Paul wouldn’t be “preaching” to these people. This makes him a Priest.
Sorry, no - it is when he administers the Sacraments that we know that he is a priest. (I am Catholic, and I want to agree with you, but it is essential to present the teaching of the Church.)
 
Well, we’re here to be truthful right?

It’s not outside the realm of possibilities that a man would be having sexual intercourse with a woman to be called to “minister” to a member of his flock…excuse me for being sexist…allow me to include a woman pastor who is “enjoying” sexual relations with her husband.

And this is a site for adults. And for truth. There is nothing vulgar about what I’m saying.

Now, I’m sure it might turn the stomach of some to think that just minutes before he/she is attending to the spiritual needs of a grieving member of his/her church, he/she was engaged in carnal pleasures, but let’s be real…it happens.

The point is, who’s in a better frame of mind to pastor this sheep?

The one who had carnal relations minutes before he is called to (another) duty?

Or the man dedicated solely to God?

Man cannot serve God and mammon at the same time.
Has nothing to do with mammon. The Protestant pastor is no less qualified just because he is married.
(by the way, Jesus never had a wife besides The Church)
But Peter was and aren’t you all always off about the nonsense of Peter being the first pope?
 
No. It would make you a terrible Bible student.
I’ve been letting a lot of your unanswered questions go and I’ve answered most if not all your questions, but I’m going to have to insist that this street be converted into a two way street now.

Again:

If it (The Law) was done away with, why would Jesus send a man he healed to do what Moses prescribed if it wasn’t in effect anymore?
 
I don’t see anywhere that states that any Priesthood was abolished as they are administerers of The Law and Jesus didn’t come to abolish The Law but to fulfill it and it would be in effect until His returrn.

Besides, if that were true, Paul wouldn’t be “preaching” to these people. This makes him a Priest.

👍

(If I’m wrong, please, show me specifically in Romans 8).
Basically it is found in Hebrews 7 where it talks about the priesthood being changed.
Now if perfection was through the Levitical priesthood (for on the basis of it the people received the Law), what further need was there for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not be designated according to the order of Aaron? For when the priesthood is changed, of necessity there takes place a change of law also.
(Hebrews 7:11-12 NASB)
 
Has nothing to do with mammon. The Protestant pastor is no less qualified just because he is married.

But Peter was and aren’t you all always off about the nonsense of Peter being the first pope?
Name one Apostle that got married “after” becoming an Apostle.

How is a “pastor” qualified to become a leader of Christians?

What are the requirements (I’m open to your biblical source and secular source)?

As for Peter, he left his wife behind when Jesus commissioned him (remember when Jesus said to the man that wanted to become an Apostle that they had to leave behnd wife and children and flocks and possesions?).

And Peter is the first pope.

But that’s another thread.

If you want, here’s a reference (all scripture):

scripturecatholic.com/primacy_of_peter.html
 
I’ve been letting a lot of your unanswered questions go and I’ve answered most if not all your questions, but I’m going to have to insist that this street be converted into a two way street now.

Again:

If it (The Law) was done away with, why would Jesus send a man he healed to do what Moses prescribed if it wasn’t in effect anymore?
When did Christ do away with the law?
 
How is a “pastor” qualified to become a leader of Christians?
“Pastor” is by definition a leader.
What are the requirements (I’m open to your biblical source and secular source)?
A calling from God and an appointment from the church.
As for Peter, he left his wife behind when Jesus commissioned him (remember when Jesus said to the man that wanted to become an Apostle that they had to leave behnd wife and children and flocks and possesions?).
Which verse is this?
 
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