Protestant Theologian Karl Barth on Sola Scriptura

  • Thread starter Thread starter Randy_Carson
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
Let’s put it this way, at what point do you think it would have been okay for the Church to claim Tradition that was not consistent with scripture? At what point is it okay for the Church to bind the conscience of the believer to something that is not at least implicit in scripture?
Show me a Church teaching that is not consistent with Scripture and at least implicit therein. 😉

And at what point? :hmmm:

Somewhere between, “Whatever you bind on earth is bound in heaven” (Mt 16:19) and “They saw what seemed to be tongues of fire that separated and came to rest on each of them.” (Acts 2:3)

I’m pretty confident that Apostolic Authority was firmly established either by or somehwhere between these two events. 👍
 
Show me a Church teaching that is not consistent with Scripture and at least implicit therein. 😉

And at what point? :hmmm:

Somewhere between, “Whatever you bind on earth is bound in heaven” (Mt 16:19) and “They saw what seemed to be tongues of fire that separated and came to rest on each of them.” (Acts 2:3)

I’m pretty confident that Apostolic Authority was firmly established either by or somehwhere between these two events. 👍
Hi Randy,

Agree to the last sentence, for sure apostles had the authority. Now the question arises did did their successors almost 2000 years later bind was already bound in heaven, on Mary’s Assumption ?

Your opening sentence certainly sounds like Scripture is normative (SS).

Blessings
 
Hi ben,

Thanks for your post.
Hi Topper,

Private judgement as a scriptural term, ala Peter, refers to wrong interpretations apart from God’s original Spirit led Writ. Private judgement can be done by an individual , by a cleric/office, by a magisterium, by a council. To apply “private” to individual" only is misleading to the Petrine quote.
I agree ben. Luther’s initial teaching was that ALL individuals had the right and the authority to interpret Scripture. However, about 7 years after the beginning of his Revolt, he realized that if the individual had that authority, there were going to be a LOT of people who disagreed with him. At that point, he moved towards the concept of himself having the right. Later this ‘evolved’ into the Lutheran community having the authority to interpret, and NOT the Church. So, in that respect, I agree, that “Private Interpretation” in this sense should be used to mean that various individuals and various communities claim to have that right.
Agree that all wrong interpretations lead to fracturing, no matter who does it. While some churches have more fracturing (P’S) other may have a different problem, of members abiding/remaining in leaven doctrine/practice (but not fracturing). It is a fine balance, done in glass houses. We see each others weaknesses, and could be for the better, challenging our “walk”.
Agreed again – wrong interpretations lead to fracturing. As you admit, Protestants do a lot more fractioning, which I guess would mean that they have, overall, more ‘wrong interpretations’.

First of all, I am not sure I understand what you mean by ‘leaven doctrine/practice’. Also, when you say that ‘others have a different problem’, are you referring to the Catholic Church? If so, then by what means, specifically and exactly, do you make the determination that we have a ‘problem’? Is it possibly because our doctrines are in opposition to Scripture, at least in your opinion?

Given the fact that you didn’t respond to the most important part of my post, can I assume that you were not able to advance an opposing point of view?

My point was that Luther claimed at Worms that:

Unless I am convinced otherwise by evidence from Scripture or uncontestable arguments, I remain bound………….”

This was of course in context with his statements about the apparently importance of his personal conscience, which we have seen from Lutheran Theologian Paul Tillich, Luther redefined “from the experience of Salvation by Faith Alone.

As long as the individual believes that they have the authority to contest any argument and can provide an ‘alternate interpretation’ of Scripture, then they are NOT bound to defer to anybody or any organization’s teachings. In this way they can completely justify their own doctrinal position. As we know from the Fathers, the refusal to be corrected by the Church is one of the most important indicators of heresy.

God bless you ben, Topper
 
Hi ben,

Thanks for your post.

I agree ben. Luther’s initial teaching was that ALL individuals had the right and the authority to interpret Scripture. However, about 7 years after the beginning of his Revolt, he realized that if the individual had that authority, there were going to be a LOT of people who disagreed with him. At that point, he moved towards the concept of himself having the right. Later this ‘evolved’ into the Lutheran community having the authority to interpret, and NOT the Church. So, in that respect, I agree, that “Private Interpretation” in this sense should be used to mean that various individuals and various communities claim to have that right.
Hi T,

Quickly, individual interpretation is not private interpretation. Private interpretation is wrong interpretation irregardless of who does it. One can individually interpret and it not be Private.
First of all, I am not sure I understand what you mean by ‘leaven doctrine/practice’.
OK. This from Jesus speaking of the Pharisees, who sit in Moses seat , from which they are to be obeyed. Yet they had leaven (impurity), which was later described to be "bad doctrine’’. We are told to "beware’’ of such leaven, and obviously not follow it, implying it certainly is not from Moses seat, but man made.
Also, when you say that ‘others have a different problem’, are you referring to the Catholic Church?
Yes, but not just Catholics, but really something all churches are challenged with: a congregation tolerant of bad doctrine/practice.
If so, then by what means, specifically and exactly, do you make the determination that we have a ‘problem’? Is it possibly because our doctrines are in opposition to Scripture, at least in your opinion?
Well yes , in my opinion , as contrary to scripture, hearing the Lord’s voice of discernment as it relates to His scripture and His His/story/tradition.

As an example, did Mary Assume as proclaimed by CC in 1954? Tough to demand it as obligatory, per scripture, patristic writings, some presbyters, theologians and necessity.

Blessings
 
=ericc;13736737]I didn’t . You must have mistaken me for someone else who said that
But I am not establishing what is working or not. Scriptures did indicate that Christ charged Peter to feed/lead lambs/sheep? And Christ didn’t require Peter to seek approval from his fellow brother apostles, right? And if Peter were to ask (name removed by moderator)uts from his fellow apostles, it is his prerogative and good brotherly manners. But it is not mandatory compulsion.
Now you are misrepresenting me. I have never said the Bishop of Rome does not have primacy. He does. this is consistent with the early Church and scripture. What I have said is that I do not believe that this mean universal ordinary and immediate jurisdiction. It does not mean supremacy. Disagree with me if you wish, but please say I believe something I do not.
Of course councils are relevant. You need everyone there to discuss and present evidence and make a case for the issues on hand often times quoting tradition and scriptures.
Hypothetically: Why? If, as you say, St. Peter does / did not need the others to act, why go through the exercise?
And of course there were times when Rome wasn’t invited. Does that make the
council irrelevant? But without Rome’s assent to the proposed canons, those will never be recognized as universal. We have seen line veto of canon e.g. everything else is ok except xyz.
That’s fine… But I would say the same about, say, the Ecumenical Patriarch of Constantinople, as an example, has to be there too, and has to approve. Otherwise, it isn’t ecumenical.
What I am trying to establish is that Peter’s leadership role is clearly scriptural and that is a responsibility Christ charged him personally to carry out. If you agree with this so far,
Eric, I’ve said this multiple times on this thread, and on this forum.
we can discuss how wide ranging Peter’s jurisdiction lies and the manner on how he is supposed to carry out this responsibility. Whether we agree on the process and coverage is a separate matter. Whether his fellow bishops wanted to cooperate or not is also a separate matter.
Agreed. One could also discuss this as to whether the Bishop of Rome wanted to cooperate.
I want to establish that a special leadership role for Peter is commonly agreed and not just a cosmetic special place of honor. Jesus won’t ask him 3 times just to be a pretty flower vase but to actually strengthen his brothers.
Hyperbole. I am a cradle Lutheran. I have very high regard for the popes of my lifetime, and numerous ones from centuries before. He has a unique and special place in the Universal Church. He has a historic primacy, scripturally, and in the Tradition of the Church. That is not the issue, as far as I am concerned. I don’t think that’s the issue from the perspective of the EO, nor Anglicans AFAIK.
Those who refuse to cooperate with his chosen representative are actually telling his Master that they are rejecting his chosen representative.
This is where we disagree.

Jon
 
Hi T,

Quickly, individual interpretation is not private interpretation. Private interpretation is wrong interpretation irregardless of who does it. One can individually interpret and it not be Private.
When I speak of Private Interpretation I am including ‘individual interpretation’. The issue is whether and individual can interpret apart from the Church.

Please correct me if I am misunderstanding you ben, but you seem to make some sort of distinction between individual interpretation when it is privately held and the same thing when it is ‘publically known’. Is that correct? Also, are you suggesting somehow that the early Reformation was somehow NOT the beginning of individual interpretation being acceptable? In other words, do you contend that individual interpretation (meaning outside the Church) was allowable prior to Luther? If so, could you document that?

God Bless You ben, Topper
 
Hi Jon,
Now you are misrepresenting me. I have never said the Bishop of Rome does not have primacy. He does. this is consistent with the early Church and scripture. What I have said is that I do not believe that this mean universal ordinary and immediate jurisdiction. It does not mean supremacy.
It seems that here you admit that the Bishop of Rome has, at least, primacy over the Church, meaning at the very least, over the Western Church. I agree with you that that is very clear from the Fathers. Now if Lutheranism is part of the universal Catholic Church as you claim, then that would mean that Lutheranism accepts the primacy of the Pope.

How exactly does that manifest itself within Lutheranism, officially? In other words, where can I read the official statements of Lutheranism which shows this kind of high regard for the Pope?

In addition, if the Pope has ‘primacy’ then how does the Pope actually exhibit that within Lutheranism?

In what way does Lutheranism make allowance for the Pope’s primacy in a real and substantial manner?

Topper
 
When I speak of Private Interpretation I am including ‘individual interpretation’.
Good . We are on same page. An individual is not the only one who can be wrong, have private interpretation.
The issue is whether and individual can interpret apart from the Church.
An individual must interpret apart from the Church when it is wrong.
Please correct me if I am misunderstanding you ben, but you seem to make some sort of distinction between individual interpretation when it is privately held and the same thing when it is ‘publically known’. Is that correct?
No. We were discussing “private interpretation” as cited by Peter as not holding God’s inspired view and individual conscience about what that is.
Also, are you suggesting somehow that the early Reformation was somehow NOT the beginning of individual interpretation being acceptable?
Yes. I am saying that since the garden we have had individual interpretation/understanding, before any institution.
In other words, do you contend that individual interpretation (meaning outside the Church) was allowable prior to Luther? If so, could you document that?
That is another question than the previous. Yes and no.Yes, in that the church took some time before ruling on the things that she has ruled on over the last two thousand years, and therefore allowed various interpretations to exist side by side. So that is really not apart from the church but from within. No in your sense of the question, that once the Church rules it was obligatory to abide by it (not be apart). However , Luther was not the first to oppose one sector (patriarchs) of the churches ruling. Luther was also not the first one to oppose any western Roman church ruling /understanding/interpretation/practice. Yes, it is customary to label one as heretic when opposing their particular church.

What Luther did was nothing new , as evidenced in OT and NT. The status quo truth carrier is conditionally infallible, and therefore conditionally to be one with.

Blessings

PS- “conditionally infallible” is a non sequitor (for lack of better term that escapes me) . Perhaps conditional innerancy is better.
 
Now you are misrepresenting me. I have never said the Bishop of Rome does not have primacy. He does. this is consistent with the early Church and scripture. What I have said is that I do not believe that this mean universal ordinary and immediate jurisdiction. It does not mean supremacy. Disagree with me if you wish, but please say I believe something I do not.
I am not misrepresenting anything because I wasn’t arguing for Peter’s primacy. I am arguing that Christ mandate to him gave him the legitimate authority to feed/tend the lamb and sheep i.e. lead the Church. The details weren’t given by Christ. So when Christ gave you a job, do you limit your own scope? Even if fellow Christians reject you, does it in anyway excuse yourself for reducing your own scope? Would you expect Peter to tell Christ that he wasn’t welcomed by the others and therefore he ended tending only his own backyard? If you were Peter, where would you stop feeding/tending lambs/sheep? I don’t think anyone can stop at all.
Hypothetically: Why? If, as you say, St. Peter does / did not need the others to act, why go through the exercise?
I told you the answer. Listen to what others have to say. For those accused of heresy or wrongdoing, they can demand to be heard. And to teach.
That’s fine… But I would say the same about, say, the Ecumenical Patriarch of Constantinople, as an example, has to be there too, and has to approve. Otherwise, it isn’t ecumenical.
And you can substantiate that?
Agreed. One could also discuss this as to whether the Bishop of Rome wanted to cooperate.
Of course but provided within limits of scriptures and tradition. However the personal style of the Bishop of Rome varies and some are more approachable than others. Popes have realized to get things done in those days they need to persuade, reason, cajole other Bishops. But with the Arian heresies, the heretical Patriachs are not willing to be persuaded or reasoned with. How can Peter “cooperate” with them? He can’t.
Hyperbole. I am a cradle Lutheran. I have very high regard for the popes of my lifetime, and numerous ones from centuries before. He has a unique and special place in the Universal Church. He has a historic primacy, scripturally, and in the Tradition of the Church. That is not the issue, as far as I am concerned. I don’t think that’s the issue from the perspective of the EO, nor Anglicans AFAIK.
I wasn’t arguing for his primacy. You misread me.
This is where we disagree.
It is ok to disagree. I am just arguing for Peter’s burden which he has been legitimately entrusted and that is something which he can’t shirk, with or without the cooperation of others.
 
I am not T:D
I would also say the church, including magisteriums, presbyters/bishops, councils, and last I heard they are all compromised of individuals, participating as in the ecclesia.
Is the sum of its parts the same as individuals?
Self is not immune from understanding, right from wrong, or divine revelation
So any understanding is possible. Which of course would lead to the next question why should anyone place any credence on your personal opinion. How can you guarantee that your opinion is perfectly true and not just another professional opinion based on available information/education/experience/personal quirks? What if your opinion is the opposite of another fellow Christian and assuming ceteris paribus?
Again you are misrepresenting the term" private’’,in place of "individual’’.
Let us just call it personal interpretation. Does it make any difference? If it is personal you can’t immune yourself from error.
that is a bombshell. The full abdicating of the self dignity and deepest essence of man before God. The fruit a fully institutionalized religion.
Why is that a bombshell? Yes, what is wrong about abdicating of self-dignity? Christ lowered himself from God to a common criminal to be mocked, spat, whipped, stripped naked and crucified. So didn’t he abdicate his self-dignity and deepest essence of God? The Egyptian eunuch Acts 8:31 didn’t think he lost any self dignity by admitting he need someone to guide him. Pride is the fruit of self-ego.
Again, we both love the church, but you go too far in institutional separation, in the things of God.
The power to bind and loose is given by Christ, not everyone has it. Tell him he carried the institutional separation too far. One thing is clear, if one hasn’t been given that power to bind and loose, don’t call it sour grapes. And there are good reasons why not everyone has been given that power.

God is the creator of that institution he called the Church. In fact he started way back during Moses times by segregating the Levites to do priestly/temple duties and imposing numerous rules on rituals and so on. And he started the ball rolling again by instructing that disputes be taken to the Church for settlement.
Absolutely agree. The pointing finger goes both ways.That is right. It certainly is not to secular rulers, nor other religions.
Forget about the fingers. Either one has the authority or one doesn’t.
The church does have offices and giftings, all exercising authority. A layperson is not devoid of giftings and a share of authority.
I am not claiming individuals are incapable of divine giftings. I am claiming that not all have the authority even if they have been gifted, are good and holy people.
 
I am not T:
So sorry for calling you T,Topper. I have been close a few times in that kind of goof up, and looks like I finally did it erric.
Is the sum of its parts the same as individuals?
I don’t think so.
So any understanding is possible
I would say so. That is why I do not like the word infallible. It kind of takes away an aspect of free will, makes the Church/individual a robot, and I think actually takes away a little honor and glory to God for His graciousness in keeping her/us inerrant, which is a much better word. It implies a deeper dependency on God for being “right on”.
Which of course would lead to the next question why should anyone place any credence on your personal opinion.
One should place credence where the Lord leads you to do so. Be ye convinced yourself by His unction , even in whatever He has also convinced me.
How can you guarantee that your opinion is perfectly true and not just another professional opinion based on available information/education/experience/personal quirks?
I guarantee only one thing , His unction is sufficient to discern these things.
What if your opinion is the opposite of another fellow Christian and assuming ceteris paribus?
That all depends on the specifics, doesn’t it ? I mean for quite a while the Dominicans fought heavily against the Immaculate Conception, even against the Franciscans I think . They both remained Catholic. Yet another example is the east’s opposition to Rome being supreme. Apparently both sides consider themselves Catholic. So I guess it all depends again on what we are talking about.
Let us just call it personal interpretation. Does it make any difference?
It shouldn’t. Just that some think" personal" is same as “private”, and it is not always.
If it is personal you can’t immune yourself from error.
Discussed this already above. The individual is not infallible, nor is any particular congregation/church. The Church at large is infallible in this: we will be presented as a spotless Bride on that great day, and, His Truth is marching on, thru her/us.
Why is that a bombshell? (The individual has no way to know.The individual has no assurance) …Yes, what is wrong about abdicating of self-dignity? Christ lowered himself from God to a common criminal to be mocked, spat, whipped, stripped naked and crucified.
Look, if you want to compare us to Christ, then let us do all things lawful to his rites (baptism and communion) , but also rely on personal,divine fellowship, and doing nothing without being one with the Father. He did not consult the magisterium/San Hedrin , the high priest, rabbis, and was one with Writ. In that he fulfilled all the One true religion of the OT.

Jesus never abdicated His inherent dignity and essence. Only sin does that. Mocking Him and crucifying Him, even taking on our sin did not take that away. An unblemished sheep does not lose their essence or dignity when placed on the altar.
The Egyptian eunuch Acts 8:31 didn’t think he lost any self dignity by admitting he need someone to guide him. Pride is the fruit of self-ego.
Self dignity, as given by God, and our essence, as being made in His image, was actually fully utilized when the Ethiopian "called out to the Lord/Philip’’. Pride is not the opposite of God given dignity/essence.

Again, the individual is capable of divine revelation and full assurance. That is not exclusive to the Church hierarchy .

Yes faith cometh by hearing , and that by the Word of God (thru us/ecclesia), but even nature speaks to us, and sometimes a "mule’’.
God is the creator of that institution he called the Church. In fact he started way back during Moses times by segregating the Levites to do priestly/temple duties and imposing numerous rules on rituals and so on. And he started the ball rolling again by instructing that disputes be taken to the Church for settlement.
Agree. They are His dispensations . All I said is that one can take it too far, as we both know has happened before, and in OT. “Salvation is of the Jews” even the church now. Yet in the end, an institution can not save, except thru Jesus Christ.
Forget about the fingers. Either one has the authority or one doesn’t.
Agreed. It is either God given or self given/taken.
I am not claiming individuals are incapable of divine giftings. I am claiming that not all have the authority even if they have been gifted, are good and holy people
OK. Yet I would say any one in the ecclessia has some authority in Christ. You are in one army or the other. Even a ‘private’ has some authority over an enemy.
The power to bind and loose is given by Christ, not everyone has it.
See above. We all do to some extent. If we have none, we are not a disciple yet.

We are both in a visible an invisible kingdom, in which we battle the kingdom of darkness.

Blessings
 
Hi Jon,

It seems that here you admit that the Bishop of Rome has, at least, primacy over the Church, meaning at the very least, over the Western Church. I agree with you that that is very clear from the Fathers. Now if Lutheranism is part of the universal Catholic Church as you claim, then that would mean that Lutheranism accepts the primacy of the Pope.

How exactly does that manifest itself within Lutheranism, officially? In other words, where can I read the official statements of Lutheranism which shows this kind of high regard for the Pope?

In addition, if the Pope has ‘primacy’ then how does the Pope actually exhibit that within Lutheranism?

In what way does Lutheranism make allowance for the Pope’s primacy in a real and substantial manner?

Topper
We do accept papal primacy , he exercises it as a Shepherd.

Keep the faith , Starwars
 
Hi ben,

Thanks for your response.
Good . We are on same page. An individual is not the only one who can be wrong, have private interpretation. An individual must interpret apart from the Church when it is wrong.
Exactly ben. When I speak of ‘Private Interpretation’ I mean interpretation apart from the Catholic Church, which is exactly how the Fathers meant it. As you mention, there are a LOT of ‘community based interpretations’ which are formulated by this or that denomination. Many of these interpretations conflict with others, which means that only one of them can be correct - if not both. From what I can see, any Sola Scriptura based interpretation is by definition on very shaky ground, and I mean ANY form of Sola Scriptura.
No. We were discussing “private interpretation” as cited by Peter as not holding God’s inspired view and individual conscience about what that is. Yes. I am saying that since the garden we have had individual interpretation/understanding, before any institution.
It seems to me that you are suggesting that Christianity remained relatively unified doctrinally for the first 1000 years and yet, still, practiced some form of Sola Scriptura? Are you really saying that?

Maybe I should clarify something and that would help. Of course man has always had free will and has had the ability to discern and judge, but that in order for Christendom to maintain unity, the Christian had to allow the Church to establish moral and doctrinal issues. It is my understanding that this is the modern day Lutheran teaching.
That is another question than the previous. Yes and no. Yes, in that the church took some time before ruling on the things that she has ruled on over the last two thousand years, and therefore allowed various interpretations to exist side by side. So that is really not apart from the church but from within. No in your sense of the question, that once the Church rules it was obligatory to abide by it (not be apart). However , Luther was not the first to oppose one sector (patriarchs) of the churches ruling. Luther was also not the first one to oppose any western Roman church ruling /understanding/interpretation/practice. Yes, it is customary to label one as heretic when opposing their particular church.
I think that you made an important point. It is true that Luther was not the first to ‘challenge’ various NT books. However, after the 5th century, there was VERY LITTLE of that being done. The fact that Luther did it as a convicted heretic should count for something with regards to his authority to do so. There is also the ‘reasons’ that he did so. In addition, there were literally dozens and dozens of issues that Luther challenged, which then begs the following question:

Ben, do you think that Luther was right about all those dozens of issues and that the Church of 1500 years with the tens of thousands of Bishops and Theologians were wrong? Does that seem plausible? There is of course the issue of Luther refuting the authority of the Church BEFORE he was excommunicated. Do you think he should or should not have been excommunicated?
What Luther did was nothing new , as evidenced in OT and NT. The status quo truth carrier is conditionally infallible, and therefore conditionally to be one with.
You have seen Dave Armstrong’s list of 50 things that Luther challenged/refuted/denied/rejected etc before he was excommunicated – right ben? Are you saying that Luther really didn’t introduce anything ‘new’ or radical, or in opposition to established Church teaching?

God Bless You ben, Topper
 
I am not misrepresenting anything because I wasn’t arguing for Peter’s primacy. I am arguing that Christ mandate to him gave him the legitimate authority to feed/tend the lamb and sheep i.e. lead the Church. The details weren’t given by Christ. So when Christ gave you a job, do you limit your own scope? Even if fellow Christians reject you, does it in anyway excuse yourself for reducing your own scope? Would you expect Peter to tell Christ that he wasn’t welcomed by the others and therefore he ended tending only his own backyard? If you were Peter, where would you stop feeding/tending lambs/sheep? I don’t think anyone can stop at all.

I told you the answer. Listen to what others have to say. For those accused of heresy or wrongdoing, they can demand to be heard. And to teach.

And you can substantiate that?

Of course but provided within limits of scriptures and tradition. However the personal style of the Bishop of Rome varies and some are more approachable than others. Popes have realized to get things done in those days they need to persuade, reason, cajole other Bishops. But with the Arian heresies, the heretical Patriachs are not willing to be persuaded or reasoned with. How can Peter “cooperate” with them? He can’t.

I wasn’t arguing for his primacy. You misread me.

It is ok to disagree. I am just arguing for Peter’s burden which he has been legitimately entrusted and that is something which he can’t shirk, with or without the cooperation of others.
And you argue it well, 👍 because you argue it from the Catholic position. A few simply want to bash others. It happens both ways, sadly.

Jon
 
Hi Stars

Thanks for your response.
We do accept papal primacy , he exercises it as a Shepherd.

Keep the faith , Starwars
OK, you accept papal primacy. So, what does the Pope have primacy over exactly? Is it the western Church? Does that mean that he has ‘primacy’ over all of Western Christendom?

If in fact that primacy is over all of Western Christendom, then how, specifically and exactly does that ‘primacy’ manifest itself in your community?

In other words, is there an official statement in your ecclesiastical community which comments on the primacy of the Pope?

God bless you Stars, Topper
 
Exactly ben. When I speak of ‘Private Interpretation’ I mean interpretation apart from the Catholic Church, which is exactly how the Fathers meant it.
Understand, and that is how you qualified the original question. I answered both , but will say again that is not the original intent but: “Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.”
From what I can see, any Sola Scriptura based interpretation is by definition on very shaky ground, and I mean ANY form of Sola Scriptura.
Tradition /historic hermeneutics is also then on shaky grounds.
It seems to me that you are suggesting that Christianity remained relatively unified doctrinally for the first 1000 years and yet, still, practiced some form of Sola Scriptura? Are you really saying that?
I don’t think so. I will certainly say SS was normative , even as it was "hot of the press’’. Do not think there was unity until a full millennia.
Maybe I should clarify something and that would help. Of course man has always had free will and has had the ability to discern and judge, but that in order for Christendom to maintain unity, the Christian had to allow the Church to establish moral and doctrinal issues. It is my understanding that this is the modern day Lutheran teaching.
Yes, and that with normative Writ as it was available/written. Only the first generation relied more heavily on the apostles oral words .
I think that you made an important point. It is true that Luther was not the first to ‘challenge’ various NT books. However, after the 5th century, there was VERY LITTLE of that being done. The fact that Luther did it as a convicted heretic should count for something with regards to his authority to do so. There is also the ‘reasons’ that he did so.
To me, with scant knowledge, would say the books were way down the list and timeline for what he and others earlier challenged.
Ben, do you think that Luther was right about all those dozens of issues and that the Church of 1500 years with the tens of thousands of Bishops and Theologians were wrong? Does that seem plausible?
Again,not sure about all the issues, but maybe more the general ones. We could really stray of topic here. But as in our last discussion of this, don’t think what Luther challenged was in place for 1500 years.
Are you saying that Luther really didn’t introduce anything ‘new’ or radical, or in opposition to established Church teaching?
Again, old stuff from previous curtailed, properly so, thread.

But again, yes and no. What he said was primarily only new to his contemporaries and sometime before them but certainly not so new to the earliest church. Some terminology may have been new, but still true to original church, and new only to combat new/ developed doctrine/practice.

Luther pretty much did what Anthasius did when combating Arianism: rightly proclaimed and divided the Written Word of God on the matter. He fought private (human) interpretation with Godly interpretation.

Blessings
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top