Protestant version of the Lord's Prayer

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Why do Protestants end the Lord’s Prayer with “For Thine is the kingdom, the power and the glory forever and ever.”
 
Because they think that the Lord said those words, while it has always been the Church’s position that the Lord stopped speaking after he said Amen, and that someone added that in later.
 
That’s the way it is in the King James Bible, which was the standard version for most Protestants up to the last part of the 20th century.

It is left out of most newer Protestant Bibles too, as it’s thought to be a late addition by some scholars.
 
Protestant verstion from KJV:
Mat 6:9 After this manner therefore pray ye: Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name.
Mat 6:10 Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven.
Mat 6:11 Give us this day our daily bread.
Mat 6:12 And forgive us our debts, as we forgive our debtors.
Mat 6:13 And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil: For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, forever. Amen.
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as one can see it still ends with amen. Luther’s Bible has a similar line:
Denn dein ist das Reich und die Kraft und die Herrlichkeit in Ewigkeit. Amen.
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in other translations:

International Standard Version (ISV), Vulgate, DRB all don’t have that.

CUV (Chinese Uninion Version) has that line but add a comment “an old version doesn’t have words between ‘For’ and ‘Amen’”
 
The FACT is that the KJV added it to one passage that contains the Our Father, as it is not in the original.

Where DID it come from? (Cover your eyes all you Prots),
It is a doxology from the non-canonical Didache.

Why is it included in the KJV, when it’s non-canonical? :hmmm:
Pax vobiscum,
 
Wait I think I have it…wait… :confused: :rolleyes: 🙂 😃 because they added it to it! :eek:
 
In my church, our priest ends the Lords Prayer with “For thine is the kingdom”

As a convert from atheism, I thought this a perfectly natural part of the prayers. Guess I was wrong.

Then I need to ask…IS THIS WRONG of my priest to add this to the ending of the Lords Prayer?
 
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mkw:
In my church, our priest ends the Lords Prayer with “For thine is the kingdom”

As a convert from atheism, I thought this a perfectly natural part of the prayers. Guess I was wrong.
Then I need to ask…IS THIS WRONG of my priest to add this to the ending of the Lords Prayer?
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You’ll notice that it is seperate from the actual Our Father and it’s for the very reason that I mentioned above. The Didache shows that the phrase was a part of the early liturgy, but is not part of the prayer. It is part of our liturgy, but not part of that prayer. Get Fr Oscar Lukefahr’s great FREE course from CHSS called “We Worship”. amm.org/chss/chss.htm

Pax vobiscum,
 
Don’t we say “For the kingdom and the power and the glory are yours now and forever”? That’s almost the same thing as saying “For Thine is the kingdom, the power and the glory forever.” The priest usually says something about “as we wait in joyful hope…” Protestants don’t have priests, so they don’t have that little interlude.
 
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StratusRose:
Don’t we say “For the kingdom and the power and the glory are yours now and forever”? That’s almost the same thing as saying “For Thine is the kingdom, the power and the glory forever.” The priest usually says something about “as we wait in joyful hope…” Protestants don’t have priests, so they don’t have that little interlude.
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Yes, we say it during the mass, but it is not a part of that prayer specifically. If you say the prayer out of mass, you don’t say this part, too do you? No, we end with Amen.

I find it interesting that Protestants took out books of the Bible, then claim Catholics added to the Bible (when referring to these books) but yet here is clear evidence that they specifically added to it. I just don’t understand it.
 
I had someone ask me one time, how do I know that Catholics didn’t add those books to the Bible. I told him because at the Council of Nicea in 325 was one of the councils where the canons of the Bible where established. Since the Reformation did not occur until the 1400-1500’s, it stands to reason that it was the Protestants that took out the books, not Catholics adding to.
 
I love telling KJV lovers that they have a non-Biblical part of the Catholic liturgy right in their Bibles. That usually gets a response.
 
hmmm, The KJV ends with verse 15.

9: After this manner therefore pray ye: Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name.
10: Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven.
11: Give us this day our daily bread.
12: And forgive us our debts, as we forgive our debtors.
13: And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil: For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen.
14: For if ye forgive men their trespasses, your heavenly Father will also forgive you:
15: But if ye forgive not men their trespasses, neither will your Father forgive your trespasses

BIC

LAUS DEO
 
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keenanpa:
Why do Protestants end the Lord’s Prayer with “For Thine is the kingdom, the power and the glory forever and ever.”
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Really? Are the protestants the only ones who do so?

In the Mass, after the Our Father the priest continues with a further prayer then everyone finishes with “For the kingdom, the power, and the glory are yours, now and for ever.”

In the Divine Liturgy, after the Our Father the priest prays “For Thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, of the Father, and the Son and the Holy Spirit, now and always and for ever and ever.”

So it seems that they are not the only ones to use this.
 
Byz, the “for thine is the kingdom etc.” is a doxology, not part of the Lord’s Prayer proper.

When we say the Lord’s Prayer outside of Mass we end with, “and deliver us from evil, Amen” or
“sed libera nos ad malo, Amen”.
 
I am a protestant convert to the Catholic Church, and at the Catholic Church, we do say “for the kingdom and the power and the glory are yours forever.” We just say it after the priest says a prayer part on his own. Whether it is the original part of the prayer or not, it is still a beautiful truth to say. I don’t see a problem with it.
 
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Curious:
But it’s PRETTIER that way!! smileys.smileycentral.com/cat/36/36_1_33.gif
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Very true Curious, 🙂 but that’s because it’s our wonderful, beautiful, and very scriptural and traditonal Liturgy.

We however, weren’t bad little boys and girls and added to the Word of God. :rolleyes:

Note to catherine Siena: There really is no problem, because we use it as a doxology apart from the Our Father, as it really is.
 
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Faustina:
I had someone ask me one time, how do I know that Catholics didn’t add those books to the Bible. I told him because at the Council of Nicea in 325 was one of the councils where the canons of the Bible where established. Since the Reformation did not occur until the 1400-1500’s, it stands to reason that it was the Protestants that took out the books, not Catholics adding to.
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Oooh…I like that! 🙂
 
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