True, Luther held very strong Marian beliefs but in practice Lutherans approach these matters as neither scripturally conclusive nor forbidden.
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Per Gary Taylor’s post, who is the authority to pick and choose what is scripturally conclusive? And why should one belief this authority and not the apostolic authority of his Church? And where in the bible does it say a doctrine must be scripturally conclusive to be scripturally conclusive?
“He was the ark formed of incorruptible wood. For by this is signified that His tabernacle was exempt from putridity and corruption.” Hippolytus, Orations Inillud, Dominus pascit me (ante A.D. 235).
“This Virgin Mother of the Only-begotten of God, is called Mary, worthy of God, immaculate of the immaculate, one of the one.” Origen, Homily 1(A.D. 244).
“Let woman praise Her, the pure Mary.” Ephraim, Hymns on the Nativity, 15:23 (A.D. 370).
“Thou alone and thy Mother are in all things fair, there is no flaw in thee and no stain in thy Mother.” Ephraem, Nisibene Hymns, 27:8 (A.D. 370).
“Mary, a Virgin not only undefiled but a Virgin whom grace has made inviolate, free of every stain of sin.” Ambrose, Sermon 22:30 (A.D. 388).
Don’t be afraid of being a little more Catholic here…