Excellent question.
God Himself thought of it before Inspiring the authors of the Bible.
The term “One Church” appears some 37 times in the NT. This is significant in response to your question. **Matt. 16:15-19 and 18:15-18 **use the term [give the mandate and power] of “loosing and or binding.”
These were common terms in Jewish law when they were used. They were binding in Jewish law, and referred to Governance. Many cites back them [and Jerusalem even today] are "walled in and fortified with a front and rear gates, that are locked every evening, and opened every morning by the Prime Minister, given rule over that cities day to day activities. They could make law, break law, enforce law and interpret the law. [This is the meaning of [**Mt.16: 15:19].
God intend to start a single world wide church. Only one. He knew that He would have to authorize a system of governance to insure orderly growth.
Thus He set up Peter as His “Prime Minister” with unlimited and complete authority, answerable ONLY to God Himself. Further, God knew the role the Bible would play and anticipated your question. He therefore chose to have His One church as the only ones to whom the entire truth could be found and trusted.
The fact that the Catholic Church is 2000 years old, still growing in number and influence attest to the Wisdom of this decision. Because the Bible came through the Church [OT] and was written by Catholics [NT] is interpretable and historically provable. There were no other Christian churches for hundreds of years, and no other bible for at least 1000 years. So as the authors and editors of the Bible, it was logical and prudent of God to place the TRUST of TRUTH in His Church.
That is why Catholics have to be of one mind, one understanding with what the Church Teaches in regards the Bible.
2Cor.4 Verses 2 to 4 “We have renounced disgraceful, underhanded ways; we refuse to practice cunning or to tamper with God’s word, but by the open statement of the truth we would commend ourselves to every man’s conscience in the sight of God. And even if our gospel is veiled, it is veiled only to those who are perishing. In their case the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, to keep them from seeing the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the likeness of God.”
**1Pet.4 Verses 17 to 18
“ For the time has come for judgment to begin with the household of God; and if it begins with us, what will be the end of those who do not obey the gospel of God? And “If the righteous man is scarcely saved, where will the impious and sinner appear?”
**
2Pet.1 [20] “First of all you must understand this, that no prophecy of scripture is a matter of one’s own interpretation,”
Am I saying we are not to read the bible? NO! But we should do so by first praying for Wisdom and Understanding. Secondly, most Bible passages have multiple meaning. One for everyone [the common meaning / obvious and apparent meaning , literal meaning such a
Mt. 16:15-19, Jn. 3:5, Jn. 20:22-23, John 6: 40-68.] There is also at times, but not every time a special message from the Holy Spirit to us individually. Here we must apply reason and caution. If there is an apparent meaning as is obvious in the above noted verses, the private meaning cannot in truth ** 2 Tim. 3:16-17] contradict it], it may expand, deepen understanding, even give evidence how it applies to your own life, but as there is only a single truth for every issue, it must somewhat conform to the obvious. When in doubt I use a Catholic Bible Commentary [Haydock’s] which can be Googled.
As an FYI, I’m not pushing the Catholic Church as much as explaining where to find Biblical truth. Hope you find this information useful?
Love and prayers friend,
Pat
Hello,
pardon me for stepping in (newbee) but i noticed you said that there is more than one meaning and that is not true. there is one truth which can have many applications; perhaps that is what you meant?