Thank you.
Neither of them confirm the basis of the question: that all denominations prior to 1930 officially condemned all forms of contraception as immoral.
The first only speaks of the Anglican Church - and doesn’t state that it had ANY official position prior to 1930, only that it DID after 1931. Taking an official position (even if it was - it’s entirely unclear about that) doesn’t document a “180 degree reversal” - that would require the opposite position was officially declared before that.
The second doesn’t give the official position of ANY denomination prior to 1930, much less all of them.
Lost me…
Your entire question is based on the premise that all denominations in history prior to 1930 were officially (you stressed taht word - in embolden font) condemned all forms of contraception as “immoral.” And that they “reversed” this “180 degrees” after 1930. Thus, your premise must be supported. Namely, that “all denominations prior to 1930” were officially condemning of all forms of contraception as immoral. You need to document that first. Then your premise is that they “reversed” that official position, “180 degrees” all since 1930. You didn’t substantiate the premise of the question, thus the question is moot. You haven’t established (yet - I’m sure its coming) that all denominations in history before 1930 had an official declaration condemning all forms of contraception as immoral. And you haven’t (yet) established that they all made an official 180 degree reversal of that. Establish the premise, the basis of the question - THEN we can discuss it (if it proves correct).
Thank you.
Pax
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