Protestants and the Council of Ephesus (431)?

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Mary was no where alive when the Books of the Kings were written. If however you’re trying to explain it as something prophetic in nature, you need something stronger than “are found in the Books of the Kings” to support that.

She was a receptacle that the Holy Spirit used to hide His Divinity in humanity. That doesn’t make her the “Mother of God”, that only makes her an egg donor, and sorry it sounds so impersonal. But Jesus existed before Mary, therefore she cannot be the “Mother of God”. Jesus was, like the angel said, “that Holy thing” in her womb.
By being born of her, that doesn’t make her a queen. Nor did God married her, seeing she was Joseph’s wife, so Joseph is her husband, not God. Joseph had relations with her after Jesus was conceived from that virgin’s womb, because he had brothers and sisters.
She’s blessed among all women, for having that wonderful privilege, and the fruit of her womb is blessed. But she did not give Jesus his divinity, in fact she gave Jesus his mortality, in order that he could die on the cross, because in his ‘God form’ He cannot die. In his human state, his Divinity was hid in mortality, that’s why he said everything he does, he did through the Father, not of his own.

Jesus’ prayer to God fulfilled on Sunday at His resurrection. The prayer was:
John 17:5 “And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
Before Mary ever existed.

Again, Mary gave Jesus his mortality, the Father, after Jesus’ death, gave Jesus his immortality back the way it was in the eons of eternity. In that light, Mary is definetly not God’s Queen, nor she sits Queen. The throne in heaven is the Throne of the Father and the Lamb, not the Father, and the Lamb, and the Mary.
Reading this post brings to mind something that hasn’t been discussed much here (as far as I know): what do you Protestant posters out there think about the Council of Ephesus (those of you who think about it at all, e.g. Lutherans and Anglicans)?
 
By the way, Arglaze, it’s been mentioned before but I think it needs to be repeated: “mother of God” is not a literal translation of theotokos.

A literal translation would be more like “birthgiver of God”, but that’s a rather strange phrase in English; so in practice we translate theotokos sometimes as “mother of God” and sometimes as “God-bearer”.
 
Reading this post brings to mind something that hasn’t been discussed much here (as far as I know): what do you Protestant posters out there think about the Council of Ephesus (those of you who think about it at all, e.g. Lutherans and Anglicans)?
I would accept it as perfectly orthodox. Nestorianism obviously had huge ramifications…especially for certain theologies that developed during the Reformation (which shall remain nameless, haha).
 
sorry i can’t answer it lol:p 😛 😛
but i know a great place here
u can see it
 
what do you Protestant posters out there think about the Council of Ephesus (those of you who think about it at all, e.g. Lutherans and Anglicans)?
Part of the reason I ask this is that I’ve heard that a lot of Anglicans count four ecumenical councils (Nicea 325, Constantinople 381, Ephesus 431, and Chalcedon 451) – which was, if not unheard of, at least highly unusual prior to the Reformation. (The Oriental Orthodox count 3 ecumenical councils, the Eastern Orthodox count 7 ecumenical councils, and us Roman Catholics count 21.)
 
Part of the reason I ask this is that I’ve heard that a lot of Anglicans count four ecumenical councils (Nicea 325, Constantinople 381, Ephesus 431, and Chalcedon 451) – which was, if not unheard of, at least highly unusual prior to the Reformation. (The Oriental Orthodox count 3 ecumenical councils, the Eastern Orthodox count 7 ecumenical councils, and us Roman Catholics count 21.)
Did the Anglicans give a reason as to why only the first four?
 
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