Protestants and the power to absolve sin

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Does anyone know how Protestants explain Jesus words to the apostles when he gave them the power to ‘bind and to loose?’ I hve a very good friend who is ‘saved’ and we have lots of meaningful discussions. She asked me for a biblical quote regarding the sacrament of reconciliation and this is the one I gave her. She says she has no explaination for the scripture but does not believe the apostles heard individual confessions and gave absolution. She also does not believe in child baptism as she believes you must be able to make up your own mind, or confirmation despite the biblical evidence. Can anyone shed any light on things?
 
Does anyone know how Protestants explain Jesus words to the apostles when he gave them the power to ‘bind and to loose?’ I hve a very good friend who is ‘saved’ and we have lots of meaningful discussions. She asked me for a biblical quote regarding the sacrament of reconciliation and this is the one I gave her. She says she has no explaination for the scripture but does not believe the apostles heard individual confessions and gave absolution. She also does not believe in child baptism as she believes you must be able to make up your own mind, or confirmation despite the biblical evidence. Can anyone shed any light on things?
Well, the explanation that I found in my old NIV study Bible was that the apostles wouldn’t actually be effecting the forgiveness of sins, they would just be declaring that the person had already been forgiven by God. Also, this would be something that anyone could do. For example, if someone came to me and explained how they had sinned and fervently asked God for forgiveness, I would be able to tell them in all confidence that their sins had been forgiven by God.

Obviously, this interpretation goes completely against Jesus’ language in this passage. This protestant perspective says “First the sins are forgiven in Heaven and then we can declare them forgiven on earth.” When Jesus clearly says that whoever the apostles forgave on earth would likewise be forgiven in Heaven. This protestant interpretation doesn’t match.

Just one thing that made me leave. 🙂
 
Well, the explanation that I found in my old NIV study Bible was that the apostles wouldn’t actually be effecting the forgiveness of sins, they would just be declaring that the person had already been forgiven by God. Also, this would be something that anyone could do. For example, if someone came to me and explained how they had sinned and fervently asked God for forgiveness, I would be able to tell them in all confidence that their sins had been forgiven by God.
This is exactly how I have heard Protestants explain this passage – as you note: in perfect contradiction of the grammar. Moreover they claim that the power of retaining sins does not mean that absolution can be withheld but that someone who does not receive the “word” that Jesus has come to forgive sins will not have their sins forgiven.

It’s a desperate and delirious attempt to ignore the plain sense of the text, but what else can they do?
 
It’s a desperate and delirious attempt to ignore the plain sense of the text, but what else can they do?
This text always bothered me when I was Protestant. I used to wonder if maybe it was an error in the Bible. Any Protestants care to explain the verse?

-D
 
<…and the lone cricket continues to chirp in the silence…>:sleep:
 
<and that chirping has been going on for almost 5 centuries.>
 
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